Can I write ##\frac{\partial x}{\partial x}=1## from Problems, ML Boas

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the chain rule in partial derivatives, specifically questioning the validity of the expression ##\frac{\partial x}{\partial x}=1## within the context of multivariable calculus. Participants explore the implications of treating variables as functions of one another.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to justify the expression using a chain rule approach, while also exploring an alternative method involving substitutions. Some participants affirm the correctness of the first method, while others express confusion regarding the independence of variables.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and affirmations regarding the use of the chain rule. There is acknowledgment of confusion about variable independence, and some guidance is offered to clarify the application of the chain rule in this context.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the concept of treating variables as functions of one another, particularly in the context of partial derivatives and the implications of variable independence in the chain rule.

agnimusayoti
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Homework Statement
given ##u(x,y)## and ##y(x,z)##: show that
$$(\frac {\partial u}{\partial x})_z = (\frac {\partial u}{\partial x})_y + (\frac {\partial u}{\partial y})_x (\frac {\partial y}{\partial x})_z$$
Relevant Equations
Chain rule
First, I tempted to use this kind of chain rule:
$$(\frac {\partial u}{\partial x})_z = (\frac {\partial u}{\partial x})_y (\frac {\partial x}{\partial x})_z + (\frac {\partial u}{\partial y})_x (\frac {\partial y}{\partial x})_zz$$
Then, I think that ##(\frac {\partial x}{\partial x})_z = 1##
i got the result.

But, I doubt about my answer. So I try to find different answer. I did in this way (i think below is the right answer).
For ##u(x,y) \Rightarrow du = (\frac {\partial u}{\partial x})_y dx + (\frac {\partial u}{\partial y})_x dy ##.
For ##y(x,z) \Rightarrow dy = (\frac {\partial y}{\partial x})_z dx + (\frac {\partial y}{\partial z})_x dz ##.
Then, I substitute dy from 2nd equation to the 1st one and get the same result.

Now, the question is can I use the first method, where I define ##(\frac {\partial x}{\partial x})_z = 1##?
Thanks.
 
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I think 1st method is correct, I don't see anything wrong, you essentially use the 2-variable chain rule.
 
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Delta2 said:
I think 1st method is correct, I don't see anything wrong, you essentially use the 2-variable chain rule.
But, there is no x function as x and z independent variable. This was confusing me. Could you explain? Thanks
 
agnimusayoti said:
But, there is no x function as x and z independent variable. This was confusing me. Could you explain? Thanks
x is certainly a function of itself, so you can write ##\frac{dx}{dx} = 1## or ##\frac{\partial x}{\partial x} = 1##
 
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agnimusayoti said:
But, there is no x function as x and z independent variable. This was confusing me. Could you explain? Thanks
I think I understand your confusion. We need to introduce a new variable/function ##w(x,z)=x##. We will have the composite function ##u(w(x,z),y(x,z))## in which you can now clearly apply the 2-variable chain rule. Because essentially w=x you ll get the desired result.
 
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