Composite of two injections is an injection

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the composite of two injective functions is also an injective function. Participants are exploring the definitions and properties of injective functions, specifically focusing on the implications of function composition.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants attempt to construct formal proofs while expressing uncertainty about their reasoning. Others suggest that writing down the definitions of injectivity for the functions involved may clarify the proof structure. There are also discussions about the implications of function composition and the necessary conditions for the functions to be injective.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, with some providing insights and guidance on how to approach the proof. There is a recognition of the need to define the functions correctly for the composition to make sense, and some participants are exploring related concepts, such as surjective functions, indicating a broader inquiry into function properties.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of potential confusion regarding the domains and codomains of the functions involved in the composition, as well as the need for clarity in definitions to ensure the logical flow of the proofs being discussed.

Jamin2112
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Homework Statement



That's what I'm supposed to prove.


Homework Equations



A function f is an injection if

f(x1)=f(x2) ---> x1=x2

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm just having trouble constructing a formal proof. I mean, it's obvious that f(g(x1))=f(g(x2)) then either g(x1)=g(x2) or g(x1)≠g(x2), and since g(x1)≠g(x2) implies x1≠x2, ...

I don't know. I'm getting all tongue-tied. Help me out here.
 
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f and g are injective then is [tex]g\circ f[/tex]?, write down wheat it means for f to be injective (f(a)=f(b)=>a=b), what it means for g and what it means for [tex]g\circ f[/tex] and you should have your proof, it's a one liner.
 
Jamin2112 said:

Homework Statement



That's what I'm supposed to prove.


Homework Equations



A function f is an injection if

f(x1)=f(x2) ---> x1=x2

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm just having trouble constructing a formal proof. I mean, it's obvious that f(g(x1))=f(g(x2)) then either g(x1)=g(x2) or g(x1)≠g(x2),
Since f is an injection, you won't have the latter case. Since f(g(x1))=f(g(x2)) then g(x1)=g(x2), because f is an injection.
Jamin2112 said:
and since g(x1)≠g(x2) implies x1≠x2, ...

I don't know. I'm getting all tongue-tied. Help me out here.
 
Nevermind. I was thinking to hard about this.

Proof.

Let h=f(g(x)), where f and g are injective functions.

h(x1)=h(x2) [tex]\Rightarrow[/tex] f(g(x1))=f(g(x2)) [tex]\Rightarrow[/tex] g(x1)=g(x2) (since f is an injection) [tex]\Rightarrow[/tex] x1=x2 (since g is an injection)
 
But the next question asks me to show that the composite of two surjections is a surjection. I'll give it a shot.

Proof. Let f:A[tex]\rightarrow[/tex]B and g:C[tex]\rightarrow[/tex]D be surjections.

( [tex]\forall[/tex] b[tex]\in[/tex]B ) ( [tex]\exists[/tex] a[tex]\in[/tex]A ) ( f(a)=b )

( [tex]\forall[/tex] d[tex]\in[/tex]D ) ( [tex]\exists[/tex] c[tex]\in[/tex]C ) ( f(c)=d )

Let h=f(g(x)).

...

Not sure where to go from here. Can someone give me a jump start?
 
Same as before with the injection, f:A->B and g:C->A. f is surjective then for all g(c) in A there is an b in B such that f(g(c))=b. What does it mean for g to be surjective?

You have to define your maps correctly.
 
hunt_mat said:
Same as before with the injection, f:A->B and g:C->A

So why is the domain of f the same as the codomain of g?
 
because you're looking at f(g(x)), g has to map to something that f can map from. I prefer the term image to codomain, you may hear that from time to time.
 
Last edited:
hunt_mat said:
because you're looking at f(g(x)), g has to map to something that f can map from. I prefer the term image to codomain, you may hear that from time to time.

Why couldn't I just say ...

Let f:A-->B and g:C-->D be surjections. For all b in B, there exists an a in A such that f(a)=b, and for all d in D, there exists a c in C such that f(c)=d. The composite function h(x)=f(g(x)) will map the set C to the set A. h will be a surjection if for all a in A, there exists a c in C such that f(c)=a.

... I don't know. Still don't get it. :confused:
 
  • #10
No, sorry. You have to think about the two functions f & g. You can define g:A->B, so take an a in A, g will map this from A into B with a value g(a). Now as we're considering the composition f(g(a)). The value g(a) must lie in the domain of f for the composition to make sense, otherwise the composition f(g(a)) wouldn't make sense. Are you with me so far?

f will have to be a map f:B->C, so that the composition [tex]f\circ g:A\rightarrow C[/tex] makes sense. I think your confused about the composition of functions.
 
  • #11
hunt_mat said:
No, sorry. You have to think about the two functions f & g. You can define g:A->B, so take an a in A, g will map this from A into B with a value g(a). Now as we're considering the composition f(g(a)). The value g(a) must lie in the domain of f for the composition to make sense, otherwise the composition f(g(a)) wouldn't make sense. Are you with me so far?

f will have to be a map f:B->C, so that the composition [tex]f\circ g:A\rightarrow C[/tex] makes sense. I think your confused about the composition of functions.

I'm with you.
 
  • #12
So I think now you're able to complete the question using the same sort of logic as you did with the injective part.
 

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