Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Conformal and non-conformal mappings

  1. Nov 11, 2015 #1
    My understanding is that conformal mapping is restricted to analytic functions.
    What sort of mapping (if any) that can be used for non-analytic functions?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 11, 2015 #2

    andrewkirk

    User Avatar
    Science Advisor
    Homework Helper
    Gold Member

    There are two non-equivalent definitions of conformal mapping.

    One is as a mapping that locally preserves angles. The other is as a complex-valued function on an open set in ##\mathbb{C}^n## that is one-to-one and holomorphic.

    Which one are you asking about?
     
  4. Nov 12, 2015 #3
    I am not sure they are not equivalent.
    However, I am mainly interested in the second.
     
  5. Nov 12, 2015 #4

    lavinia

    User Avatar
    Science Advisor

    Conformal generally means infinitesimally angle preserving. Analytic functions are conformal away from singularities.

    Analytic functions are also orientation preserving so an angle preserving map of the plane that reverses orientation will not be analytic.

    On Riemannian manifolds a map f:M -> N is conformal if <df(x),df(y)> = g<x,y> where g is a positive function. This condition just says that the map is infinitesimally angle preserving. If f is a diffeomorphism then the pull back metric is said to be conformally equivalent to the original. In general metrics may not be conformally equivalent and each equivalence class is called a conformal structure.

    A related idea is that of local conformal equivalence. For instance, a Riemannian manifold is said to be locally conformally flat if around each point there is an open neighborhood where the metric is conformally equivalent to the flat metric. This is true of all 2 dimensional Riemannian manifolds.

    A conformal mapping does not have to be between manifolds of the same dimension. The condition, <df(x),df(y)> = g<x,y>, makes sense when M has lower dimension than N. For instance one may ask when a Riemannian manifold can be conformally immersed into another Riemannian manifold.
     
    Last edited: Nov 12, 2015
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook




Similar Discussions: Conformal and non-conformal mappings
  1. Conformal mapping (Replies: 2)

  2. Conformal map (Replies: 1)

  3. Conformal mapping (Replies: 3)

  4. Conformal mapping (Replies: 7)

  5. Conformal Mapping? (Replies: 1)

Loading...