I know that Taylors theorem is used to expand f(a+h) in terms of f(a) and its derivatives in the interval (a,a+h), but my question is that can we use it to expand f(a-h) in terms of f(a) and its derivatives over the interval (a-h,a).(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

If yes please give reason.

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# Confusion in understanding Taylors theorem.

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