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Confusion in understanding Taylors theorem.

  1. Feb 11, 2012 #1
    I know that Taylors theorem is used to expand f(a+h) in terms of f(a) and its derivatives in the interval (a,a+h), but my question is that can we use it to expand f(a-h) in terms of f(a) and its derivatives over the interval (a-h,a).
    If yes please give reason.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 11, 2012 #2

    tiny-tim

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    Hi AAQIB IQBAL! :smile:

    Define g(x) = f(2a - x), so g(a + h) = f(a - h),

    and then apply Taylor's theorem to g :wink:
     
  4. Feb 11, 2012 #3

    HallsofIvy

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    Or- replace the coefficients of odd powers of h, in the expansion of x+h with their negatives.
     
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