Conjugate e^(iz): Solving for z = nπ

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Homework Statement



I want to show that

[tex]\exp \left( i\bar{z} \right) = \overline{\exp \left( iz \right)}[/tex]

if and only if

[tex]z = n\pi[/tex]

for any integer n.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Utilizing Euler's formula, I got

[tex]\cos \bar{z} = \cos z[/tex]

and

[tex]\sin \bar{z} = -\sin z[/tex]

Though not fully convinced, I concluded that

[tex]\bar{z} = z[/tex]

This then led me to

[tex]\sin z = 0[/tex]

This obviously led me to the needed conclusion. But was I correct?
 
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But Euler's formula has already been proven to apply even for complex numbers. My primary concern is whether or not

[tex] \exp \left( i\bar{z} \right) = \overline{\exp \left( iz \right)} [/tex]

would give me

[tex] \bar{z} = z [/tex]
 
I didn't mean valid there, I meant useful.

For example:

[tex]\cos \bar{z} = \cos z[/tex]

and

[tex]\sin \bar{z} = - \sin z[/tex]

is satisfied by any imaginary number (just by using the even/oddness of cosine/sine).

The problem though, is that if z is a complex number, you don't have that cos(z) and sin(z) are real numbers, so you can't draw the two relations you have
 
exp(i z)*=exp((i z)*)=exp(i*z*)=exp(-i z*)
it is also easy to see
exp(i z)=exp(-Im[z]+i Re[z])=exp(-Im[z])exp(i Re[z])
 
guildmage said:
[tex]\cos \bar{z} = \cos z[/tex]

and

[tex]\sin \bar{z} = -\sin z[/tex]

Though not fully convinced, I concluded that
[tex] \bar{z} = z [/tex]

That's a strange conclusion:wink:...If I told you [itex]\cos(0)=\cos(100\pi)[/itex], would you then conclude [itex]0=100\pi[/itex]?
 
Alright. What if I say

[tex] \cos \bar{z} = \cos z [/tex]

would give me

[tex] \bar{z} = z + 2n\pi[/tex]

(Is this correct?)

I will then use it to say that

[tex] \sin \bar{z} = -\sin z [/tex]

gives me

[tex]\sin \left( z + 2n\pi \right) = -\sin z[/tex]

This implies that

[tex]\sin z = -\sin z[/tex]

Therefore,

[tex]z = n\pi[/tex]