- #1
fairy._.queen
- 47
- 0
Hi all!
From Wirtinger derivatives, given [itex]z=x+iy[/itex] and indicating as [itex]\overline{z}[/itex] the complex conjugate, I get:
[itex]\frac{\partial\overline{z}}{\partial z}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\partial (x-iy)}{\partial x}-i\frac{\partial (x-iy)}{\partial y}\right)=0[/itex]
This puzzles me, because I cannot see why a number and its complex conjugate could be independent variables.
Thank you in advance!
From Wirtinger derivatives, given [itex]z=x+iy[/itex] and indicating as [itex]\overline{z}[/itex] the complex conjugate, I get:
[itex]\frac{\partial\overline{z}}{\partial z}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\partial (x-iy)}{\partial x}-i\frac{\partial (x-iy)}{\partial y}\right)=0[/itex]
This puzzles me, because I cannot see why a number and its complex conjugate could be independent variables.
Thank you in advance!