Conservation of completeness by uniformly continuous bijection

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that if \( f: M \rightarrow N \) is a uniformly continuous bijection between metric spaces and \( M \) is complete, then \( N \) must also be complete. The proof relies on the assertion that the inverse \( f^{-1} \) is uniformly continuous. The participant outlines a proof strategy involving Cauchy sequences in \( N \) and concludes that \( N \) is complete if the continuity of \( f^{-1} \) holds. However, the participant expresses uncertainty about the validity of their claim regarding the uniform continuity of the inverse function.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of metric spaces and completeness
  • Knowledge of uniformly continuous functions
  • Familiarity with Cauchy sequences
  • Basic concepts of bijections in mathematical analysis
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  • Research the properties of uniformly continuous functions and their inverses
  • Study the relationship between completeness and uniform continuity in metric spaces
  • Explore counterexamples related to uniform continuity and completeness
  • Investigate the concept of uniform isomorphisms in metric spaces
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Mathematicians, particularly those studying analysis and topology, as well as students tackling advanced concepts in metric spaces and uniform continuity.

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Homework Statement


I want to prove this proposition:

Let [itex]f: M \rightarrow N[/itex] be a uniformly continuous bijection between metric spaces. If M is complete, then N is complete.

The Attempt at a Solution


I have a 'partial' solution, whose legitimacy hinges upon a claim that I am unable to prove, namely that the inverse of a uniformly continuous bijection is uniformly continuous.

Assuming that is true, here goes my 'proof':
Let [itex](y_n)[/itex] be a Cauchy sequence in N. Then, since [itex]f^{-1}[/itex] is uniformly continuous, [itex](f^{-1}(y_n))[/itex] is Cauchy in M; since M is complete, there exists [itex]a \in M[/itex] such that [itex]f^{-1}(y_n) \rightarrow a[/itex]. Hence by continuity of f, we have [itex]f(f^{-1}(y_n)) = y_n \rightarrow f(a) \in N[/itex]. Thus N is complete.

The above proof seems very 'natural' ... but as I mentioned, it hinges on something I am unable to prove, or disprove. So is my claim correct and if so how can I prove it? If not... well then I have no idea how to prove the original claim; this was my best idea.
 
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I would try to find a counterexample for both statements (that is: "uniform continuous images of complete spaces are complete" and "uniform continuous bijections are uniform isomorphisms"). I doubt that they are true.
 

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