Continuity of arctan: Proving Limit of zn

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SUMMARY

The limit of the sequence defined by zn = Arg(-1 + i/n) as n approaches infinity is π, derived from the expression zn = arctan(-1/n). The continuity of the arctan function is crucial for this conclusion, as it allows the interchange of limit and function. The derivative of arctan(x), given by 1/(1+x²), is continuous for all x, which implies that arctan is also continuous. A formal proof of the continuity of arctan is necessary to solidify this conclusion.

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Homework Statement



Let zn = Arg(-1 + i/n). Find limn→∞ zn

Homework Equations



Definition of convergence of a sequence.

The Attempt at a Solution



Well zn = Arg(-1 + i/n) = arctan(-1/n).

So it seems clear that limn→∞arctan(-1/n) = arctan(limn→∞ -1/n) = arctan(0) = \pi.

Which is true if arctan is continuous.

There's the problem, I don't know how to prove that arctan is continuous. It seems way more difficult that I expected. I can't seem to get anywhere with it.

How do you show it?

Or can anyone think of another way to find the limit?
 
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looserlama said:

Homework Statement



Let zn = Arg(-1 + i/n). Find limn→∞ zn

Homework Equations



Definition of convergence of a sequence.

The Attempt at a Solution



Well zn = Arg(-1 + i/n) = arctan(-1/n).

So it seems clear that limn→∞arctan(-1/n) = arctan(limn→∞ -1/n) = arctan(0) = \pi.

Which is true if arctan is continuous.

There's the problem, I don't know how to prove that arctan is continuous. It seems way more difficult that I expected. I can't seem to get anywhere with it.

How do you show it?

Or can anyone think of another way to find the limit?
Well, the derivative of arctan(x) is \displaystyle \frac{1}{1+x^2}\,, which is continuous for all x.

If arctan(x) is differentiable, what does that say about its continuity?
 
Yea if it is differentiable then it's continuous. But I'm guessing I can't just state that the derivative of arctan is 1/(1 + x2).

So I need to prove it.

I've seen the derivation of it, using the triangle, but I don't think that's a legitimate proof is it?

Wouldn't I have to use the definition of a derivative? And that seems really difficult.
 

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