Proving Series of Functions on (-1,1)

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that the series \(\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^n\frac{x^{2n+1}}{2n+1}\) is well-defined and differentiable on the interval (-1,1). The context is centered around series convergence and differentiability within the realm of real analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the Uniform Cauchy Criterion as a potential method for demonstrating uniform convergence and differentiability. Questions arise about the meaning of "well-defined" and how to establish uniform convergence for all ε > 0. There is also inquiry into how to show that the series represents the expansion of arctan(x).

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring different aspects of the problem, including bounding differences in the series and considering the implications of the alternating nature of the series. Some guidance has been offered regarding maximizing differences and the relationship between the series and its derivatives.

Contextual Notes

Participants express uncertainty about the definitions and criteria needed for convergence and differentiability, indicating a need for clarification on these concepts. There is also mention of later questions regarding the series expansion of arctan(x), suggesting a layered approach to the problem.

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Homework Statement



Prove that the series \sum_{n=0}^\infty(-1)^n\frac{x^{2n+1}}{2n+1} is well-defined and differentiable on (-1,1).

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I know that the function is the series expansion of arctan(x), but that it not we are showing here (however it asks in a later question to show that it is). I don't know what it means by "well-defined", but I'm going to guess it means continuous and convergent on its domain. I am guessing that I should use the Uniform Cauchy Criterion to show that it converges uniformly, and thus showing that it is differentiable.

But I'm not sure how to show that for all ε > 0, there exists and N ≥ 1 such that, for all n, p ≥ N and all x in (-1,1), |f_n(x) - f_p(x)| < ε

Also, how would I show that it is actually the series expansion for arctan(x)?

A nudge in the right direction would be greatly appreciated.
 
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Whistlekins said:
I am guessing that I should use the Uniform Cauchy Criterion to show that it converges uniformly, and thus showing that it is differentiable.

But I'm not sure how to show that for all ε > 0, there exists and N ≥ 1 such that, for all n, p ≥ N and all x in (-1,1), |f_n(x) - f_p(x)| < ε

That sounds like a good plan. Can you see when |f_n(x) - f_p(x)| would be maximized? You can bound this from above by choosing a value for x that gives the largest difference.

Whistlekins said:
Also, how would I show that it is actually the series expansion for arctan(x)?

You can probably show that their derivatives are equal.
 
clamtrox said:
That sounds like a good plan. Can you see when |f_n(x) - f_p(x)| would be maximized? You can bound this from above by choosing a value for x that gives the largest difference.

Can you expand on what you mean by maximized? Would that happen when n = 0 and p -> ∞?
 
Whistlekins said:
Can you expand on what you mean by maximized? Would that happen when n = 0 and p -> ∞?

I mean choose value for n, then pick a p that maximizes the difference for arbitrary x and then choose x to find the absolute upper bound for a given n. And notice that the series is alternating, so n=0 and p→∞ is not the maximum.
 

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