Continuity of f(x) at Rational and Irrational Points

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SUMMARY

The function f(x) defined as f(x) = {x^2 for x ∈ Q, -x^2 for x ∈ R/Q is discontinuous at all rational points and continuous at all irrational points. This conclusion is supported by the density of rational and irrational numbers, which ensures that limits approaching any rational point yield a value that does not equal the function's value at that point. Specifically, for p ∈ Q, lim(x→p) f(x) = -p^2 ≠ p^2 = f(p), while for p ∈ R/Q, lim(x→p) f(x) = -p^2 = f(p). Thus, the function is continuous only at irrational points.

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  • Understanding of continuity in real analysis
  • Familiarity with the concepts of rational and irrational numbers
  • Knowledge of limits and epsilon-delta definitions
  • Experience with theorems from real analysis, specifically those related to continuity
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  • Study the epsilon-delta definition of continuity in detail
  • Explore the density of rational and irrational numbers in real analysis
  • Review theorems related to limits and continuity from "Principles of Mathematical Analysis" by Walter Rudin
  • Investigate examples of piecewise functions and their continuity properties
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Students of real analysis, mathematics educators, and anyone studying the properties of piecewise functions and their continuity at various types of points.

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Homework Statement


f(x) = {x^2 [tex]x \in Q[/tex]
-x^2 [tex]x \in R/Q[/tex]
At what points is f continuous?

Homework Equations



continuity: for every [tex]\epsilon > 0[/tex] there exists [tex]\delta > 0 d(f(x),f(p)) < \epsilon[/tex] for all points [tex]x\inE[/tex] for which d(x,p) < [tex]\delta[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


Alright my initial thought was that it would not be continuous at any point in Q, because for any two rationals there is an irrational between them (this is correct?), but then it would be continuous at all irrationals from a theorem (4.6 in Rudin) for [tex]p\in Q[/tex], lim(x-> p) f(x) = -p^2 [tex]\neq[/tex] p^2 = f(p)
However, then this function is continuous at irrationals. For [tex]p\in R/Q[/tex], lim(x-> p) f(x) = -p^2 = f(p)

is this reasoning sound ok?
 
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I didn't bother understanding what you tried (it's not very clear)... but you seem to be playing with the right idea, using the density of Q and R\Q to show failure of continuity. You should be able to use this reasoning to show that f is discontinuous everywhere but at one point.
 
You can say that f(x) is continuous at x0 if and only if lim f(xn)= f(x0) for every sequence {xn} converging to x0. But you can't restrict that to rational numbers only or irrational numbers only.

Notice that the f(xn) will be close to f(x0) for both rational and irrational xn if and only if x02= -x02. For what x0 is that true?
 

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