Convergence in Hilbert space question

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SUMMARY

In a Hilbert space, it is not possible to conclude that a sequence \( z_n \) converges to 0 solely based on the condition that \( (z_n, y) \to 0 \) for all \( y \). The discussion highlights that while the inner product \( (e_n, y) \) approaches zero for any vector \( y \) when considering an orthonormal basis \( \{e_n\} \), the sequence \( e_n \) itself does not converge. Therefore, the assertion that \( z_n \to 0 \) cannot be established from the given condition.

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Homework Statement


Is it true/possible to show that in a Hilbert space, if z_n is a sequence (not known to converge a priori) such that (z_n,y)-->0 for all y, then z_n-->0 ?


The Attempt at a Solution



I've shown that if z_n converges, then it must be to 0. But does it converge?
 
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Consider an orthonormal basis of the Hilbert space, {e_n} and let the sequence be the basis vectors. Now (e_n,y) is the nth component of y, which must tend to zero as n goes to infinity for any y. Yet e_n clearly does not converge. So no, you can't show that.
 
Good example!
 

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