- #1

- 4,807

- 32

## Homework Statement

Is it true/possible to show that in a Hilbert space, if z_n is a sequence (not known to converge

*a priori*) such that (z_n,y)-->0 for all y, then z_n-->0 ?

## The Attempt at a Solution

I've shown that if z_n converges, then it must be to 0. But does it converge?