Convergence of Improper Integrals: Two Examples

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Homework Statement



Determine the divergence or convergence of the improper integral. Evaluate the integral if it converges.

1. [tex]\int^{4}_{2}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^{2}-4}}[/tex] dx

2. [tex]\int^{2}_{0}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt[3]{x-1}}[/tex] dx

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



1.

t = x - 2
dt = dx

[tex]\int^{4}_{2}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^{2}-4}}[/tex] dx
=[tex]\int^{2}_{0}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{(t+2)^{2}-4}}[/tex] dx
=[tex]\int^{2}_{0}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{t^{2}+4t}}[/tex] dx

[tex]\stackrel{lim}{x\rightarrow\infty}[/tex] [tex]\int^{2}_{N}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{t^{2}+4t}}[/tex] dt

I'm not sure how to integrate [tex]\int^{2}_{N}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{t^{2}+4t}}[/tex] dt from here.


2.

[tex]\int^{2}_{0}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt[3]{x-1}}[/tex] dx = [tex]\int^{1}_{0}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt[3]{x-1}}[/tex] + [tex]\int^{2}_{1}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt[3]{x-1}}[/tex]

t = 1 - x
dt = -dx

[tex]\int^{1}_{0}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt[3]{x-1}}[/tex] = [tex]\int^{0}_{1}[/tex][tex]\frac{-1}{\sqrt[3]{-t}}[/tex] dt = [tex]\int^{1}_{0}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt[3]{-t}}[/tex] dt


[tex]\stackrel{lim}{x\rightarrow\infty}[/tex] [tex]\int^{1}_{N}[/tex][tex]-t^{-1/3}[/tex] dt
= [tex]\stackrel{lim}{x\rightarrow\infty}[/tex] -[tex]\frac{3}{4}(-t)^{4/3}[/tex][tex]|^{1}_{N}[/tex] = [tex]\stackrel{lim}{x\rightarrow\infty}[/tex] [tex]\left[\frac{3}{4} + \frac{3}{4}(-N)^{4/3}\right][/tex] = [tex]\infty[/tex]

So I got that this integral diverges, however, the book answers are:


Book Answers:

1. [tex]ln (2 + \sqrt{3})[/tex]
2. 0
 
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Hmm, I see. I would like to know how this formula was derived though. Also do you see something wrong with #2?
 
For the first one you do a trig substitution, like x=2*sec(t). For the second one the "improper" part of your integrand is it's divergence at x=1. You should be letting x->1 in both halves of the integral, not x->infinity.
 
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In the first one, [tex]\lim_{N \to 0}[/tex] not [tex]\infty[/tex]
 
But I set t = x - 1 specifially to make the discontinuity at 0; with t the problem occurs at 0, then don't we take the limit to infinity?
 
Sure, in terms of t the integrand is (-t)^(-1/3) so the discontinuity is at 0. So for example integrate it from epsilon to 1 and let epsilon approach 0. Why would you send anything to infinity? BTW the antiderivative of (-t)^(-1/3) isn't (-3/4)*(-t)^(4/3). What's the correct power?
 
ah I just flipped through my textbook and you are right. I took the limit to 0 and got the right answer. the first I still am not sure how to integrate, there doesn't seem to be a trig substitution that works
 
the power you asked for is 2/3
 
clairez93 said:
ah I just flipped through my textbook and you are right. I took the limit to 0 and got the right answer. the first I still am not sure how to integrate, there doesn't seem to be a trig substitution that works

Your variable changes aren't really helping you. You are just moving the discontinuity around. To do the first integral stick with the form 1/sqrt(x^2-4) and substitute x=2*sec(t).
 
I don't understand how you came up with 2 sec t
 
clairez93 said:
I don't understand how you came up with 2 sec t

If x=2*sec(t) then x^2-4 becomes 4*sec(t)^2-4=4(sec(t)^2-1). sec(t)^2-1=tan(t)^2. Now the quantity inside the square root is a perfect square.
 
I tried doing the substitution but then got stuck again. This is what I did:

[tex]x = 2 sec (t)[/tex]
[tex]dt = 2 sec(t) tan (t) dx[/tex]
[tex]t = sec^{-1} (x/2)[/tex]

[tex]\int^{\pi/3}_{0}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{(2 sec(t)^{2} - 4} - 4}(2 sec(t) tan (t)}[/tex][tex]dt[/tex]

= [tex]\int^{\pi/3}_{0}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{4(sec^{2}t -1)}(2 sec(t) tan (t)}[/tex][tex]dt[/tex]

= [tex]\int^{\pi/3}_{0}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{4 tan^{2})t)}(2 sec(t) tan (t)}[/tex][tex]dt[/tex]


= [tex]\int^{\pi/3}_{0}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{2 tan(t)(2 sec(t) tan (t)}[/tex][tex]dt[/tex]

= [tex]\int^{\pi/3}_{0}[/tex][tex]\frac{1}{2 tan^{2}(t)(2 sec(t))}[/tex][tex]dt[/tex]


However, I still am not sure how to integrate this expression.
 
Obviously you did something wrong.
[tex]x=2sec(t)[/tex]

[tex]dx=2tan(t)sec(t)dt[/tex]

Now,
[tex]\int^{\pi/3}_{0}\frac{1}{\sqrt{\frac{4}{cos^2(t)}-4}}*2tan(t)sec(t)dt=[/tex]
[tex]=\int^{\pi/3}_{0}\frac{cos(t)}{\sqrt{4(1-cos^2(t))}}*2tan(t)sec(t)dt=[/tex]
[tex]=\int^{\pi/3}_{0}\frac{cos(t)}{2sin(t)}*2tan(t)sec(t)dt=[/tex]

Do you know how to continue from now on?

You got here cotan(t)*tan(t)=1 and its pretty easy to solve it.

Regards.
 
Finally solved it! Thank you! I would have never thought to use a trig substitution like that. Thanks.