Convergence of Sequence xn=nabn and Lim of P(n)/(a^n) = 0

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the sequence \( x_n = n a b^n \), where \( a \) is a natural number and \( b \) is a real number with \( 0 < b < 1 \). Participants are exploring how to demonstrate that this sequence converges to zero and its implications for the limit of a polynomial function divided by an exponential term.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the convergence of \( b^n \) to zero and its effect on the entire sequence. There are attempts to apply the epsilon-definition of convergence, but some find it complex. Others suggest using logarithmic properties to analyze the behavior of the sequence as \( n \) approaches infinity.

Discussion Status

There is a variety of approaches being explored, including logarithmic analysis and the monotone convergence theorem. One participant reports successfully applying the monotone convergence theorem to show convergence, while others are still questioning the best methods to demonstrate the limit behavior of the sequence.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about bounding the sequence and the applicability of L'Hospital's rule. The discussion also touches on the need for clarity regarding the behavior of logarithmic terms as \( n \) increases.

RKermanshahi
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1. Consider the sequence xn=nabn, where a is a natural number and b is a real number with 0<b<1. Show that the sequence converges to zero. Conclude from here that lim P(n)/cn=0, where P is a polynomial function and c>1.



2. I am not sure how to show that the sequence converges to zero.


3. We know that bn certainly converges to zero since 0<b<1. I have tried to show that since that part of the sequence converges to zero, the entire sequence converges to zero; however, I believe I need that at least the rest of the sequence is bounded, which it is not. I have also tried using the standard epsilon-definition of the convergence of a sequence, but that has proved to be messy, with ln's and e's. My guess is it's something simple that I'm not seeing...
 
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I would try to work with log(x_n)=log(n^a*b^n). Can you show the log goes to negative infinity as n->infinity? You can do this if you can show log(x_n)/n goes to log(b) as n->infinity.
 
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So taking the log's of both sides and applying rules of log's we get:

log(x_n)/n= (alogn)/n + logb. Is there a way to show (a logn)/n goes to zero as n goes to infinity without using L'Hospital's rule?
 
RKermanshahi said:
So taking the log's of both sides and applying rules of log's we get:

log(x_n)/n= (alogn)/n + logb. Is there a way to show (a logn)/n goes to zero as n goes to infinity without using L'Hospital's rule?

Nothing very neat, I guess. You could show the limit of log(n)/n is the same as the limit of log(e^n)/e^n, since e^n also goes to infinity. So that gives you n/e^n. If b_n=n/e^n then the limit of (b_n+1)/(b_n) is 1/e which is less than 1. So you can show it goes to zero by comparison with (1/e)^n.
 
Thanks, Dick. I actually solved it using the monotone convergence theorem. I took the quotient xn/xn+1 and showed that it was eventually always less than one (and hence eventually decreasing). I then showed it was bounded. So by the monotone convergence theorem it converges. Finally, taking the limit of the recurrence relation, we get that the limit equals 0!
 

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