Determine Convergence/Divergence of Sequence: f(x)=ln(x)^2/x

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The discussion focuses on determining the convergence of the sequence defined by a_n = ln(n)^2/n. The limit is evaluated using L'Hôpital's rule, leading to the conclusion that the sequence converges to 0 as n approaches infinity. Participants discuss the application of L'Hôpital's rule and the clarity of notation, emphasizing the importance of proper explanation in mathematical proofs. There is also a debate about whether sequences can be treated as functions, with consensus that they can, given their domain is the natural numbers. The overall conclusion is that the sequence indeed converges to 0.
  • #31
I'm simply amazed at the apparent impossibility of isolating ##n## in
$$
\big| \frac{ 2 ln(n)}{n}\big| \lt \varepsilon
$$
and the impossibility of Squeezing ##\frac{2 ln (n)}{n}## properly. There is no function that I can think of which does the job.

I do not know if the following proof is rigorous, but I present it still:
$$
\begin{flalign*}
a_n = \frac{ 2 ln(n) }{n} \\
A_n = e^{a_n} = (e^{ln(n)})^{2/n} = (n^{1/n})^2\\
\lim A_n = \lim n^{1/n} \cdot \lim n^{1/n} = 1\\
\lim e^{a_n} = 1 \\
\textrm{As}~e^x~\textrm{is a continuous function, we have} \\
\lim a_n = a_0 \implies \lim e^{a_n} = e^{a_0} = 1 \implies a_0 = 0 \\
\textrm{Thus,} ~~\lim a_n = 0\\
\end{flalign*}
$$
 
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  • #32
vela said:
This argument doesn't really work. Suppose instead we assume ##n=1## instead of ##n=3##. The rest of the argument would remain unchanged, but it would be wrong to conclude the sequence is decreasing after ##n=1##.

Your assumption is that the sequence isn't decreasing for all ##n > 3##. The contradiction tells you the sequence decreases for some ##n > 3##. That's not the same as saying the sequence decreases for all ##n > 3##.
@Hall you did not respond to this...i would be interested on your view on this...
 
  • #33
chwala said:
@fresh_42 ...you had mentioned in my other post that I cannot use L' Hopital's rule...kindly clarify...cheers.
The rule is applicable for differentiable functions. You can conclude with L'Hopital that
<br /> \lim _{x\to\infty} \frac{\ln x^2}{x} = 0.<br />
In the discrete case this is also true due to continuity.

You should be careful, though. You claimed something like
<br /> \lim _{x\to a} f(x) = L \Rightarrow (a_n \to a \Rightarrow \lim _n f(a_n) = L).<br />
This is true for continuous functions. To be more precise, the function of interest has to be continuous around the point of convergence. In the event ##x\to\infty##, it should be that ##f## is continuous from some point onward.
 
Last edited:
  • #34
nuuskur said:
The rule is applicable for differentiable functions. You can conclude with L'Hopital that
<br /> \lim _{x\to\infty} \frac{\ln x^2}{x} = 0.<br />
In the discrete case this is also true due to continuity.

You should be careful, though. You claimed something like
<br /> \lim _{x\to a} f(x) = L \Rightarrow (a_n \to a \Rightarrow \lim _n f(a_n) = L).<br />
This is true for continuous functions. To be more precise, the function of interest has to be continuous around the point of convergence. In the event ##x\to\infty##, it should be that ##f## is continuous from some point onward.
You state that the rule applies to differentiable functions? This function is not continous at ##x=0##, do we still consider it as a differentiable function?

In my understanding, if a function is not continous then it is not differentiable.
 
  • #35
chwala said:
You state that the rule applies to differentiable functions? This function is not continous at ##x=0##, do we still consider it as a differentiable function?

In my understanding, if a function is not continous then it is not differentiable.

The limit is being taken as x \to \infty; the behaviour of the function at x = 0 is of no consequence.
 
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