Converting Linear Equation to Angular Equation

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The discussion focuses on converting a linear equation, specifically mx'' + f*sin(x') + kx = 0, into angular terms. The user successfully applies the small angle approximation to simplify the equation, leading to IΘ'' + (g/L)Θ' + ? = 0. They propose that the spring constant k can be expressed as k = ω^2*m, which transforms the equation into IΘ'' + (g/L)Θ' + ω^2IΘ = 0. The final equation appears to be correctly derived based on the user's reasoning about the relationships between linear and angular variables. Overall, the conversion process and the application of approximations are key points in this discussion.
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Can anyone help me convert this linear equation to angular terms?

mx'' + f*sin(x') + kx = 0

x'' = x double dot
x' = x dot

Im having trouble find info on changing this.
 
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Well so far I have:

IΘ'' + (g/L)Θ' + ? = 0

I used the small angles approximation which got rid of the sin(Θ').

Can anyone help me turn the kx itno angular terms?
I know x goes to Θ but not sure about the spring constant.
 
I just found something.

Im thinking k = ω^2*m

So that makes this ω^2*m*Θ

and m = I

so my final equation is

IΘ'' + (g/L)Θ' + ω^2IΘ = 0

Does this look right?
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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