MHB Converting USD 1 to £ s d in 1927: Formula & Calculation

AI Thread Summary
In 1927, the exchange rate was 1 British Pound (BP) to 4.86 USD, meaning $1.00 equates to approximately 0.206 BP. To convert USD to BP, one must divide the dollar amount by 4.86. The conversion results in about 4 shillings and 2 pence, rather than 4 shillings and a ha'penny. The discussion also touches on the historical context of British currency, highlighting the playful exchange of terms like "tuppence" and "thruppence." Understanding these conversions provides insight into the monetary values of the time.
Hobo5
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Sir,
In 1927 the English Pound was USD 4.86. What would be the reverse for $1.00, with the Pound value expressed in £ s d.
Would there be a formula for this conversion?
Thank you for any help you may provide.
Regards,
P.N.
 
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Re: Monetory Values

Hobo5 said:
Sir,
In 1927 the English Pound was USD 4.86. What would be the reverse for $1.00, with the Pound value expressed in £ s d.
Would there be a formula for this conversion?
Thank you for any help you may provide.
Regards,
P.N.

1 £ = 4.86 USD

Divide by 4.86

0.205761317 £ = 1 USD, so 4 shillings and a ha'penny?.
 
Re: Monetory Values

tkhunny said:
1 £ = 4.86 USD

Divide by 4.86

0.205761317 £ = 1 USD, so 4 shillings and a ha'penny?.

Thank you for your helpful reply.
Have a great day,
P.N.
 
Hobo5 said:
Sir,
In 1927 the English Pound was USD 4.86.
So to go from English Pounds to USD, you would multiply by 4.86.

What would be the reverse for $1.00, with the Pound value expressed in £ s d.
To reverse that do the reverse of multiplying- divide by 4.86.

Would there be a formula for this conversion?
Thank you for any help you may provide.
Regards,
P.N.
 
...enough for 1 pound of Yorkshire pudding?
 
Country Boy said:
So to go from English Pounds to USD, you would multiply by 4.86. To reverse that do the reverse of multiplying- divide by 4.86.
Think about one thing before you decide to multiply or divide. "Will I have more or less when I am done?"

If 4.86 USD = 1 BP, then you must have more USD than BP. If you calculate and get less, you did something wrong.
 
tkhunny said:
Think about one thing before you decide to multiply or divide. "Will I have more or less when I am done?"

If 4.86 USD = 1 BP, then you must have more USD than BP. If you calculate and get less, you did something wrong.

Thank you again for getting back to me...but can you please explain the four shillings and the ha'penny?
P.N.

- - - Updated - - -

Wilmer said:
...enough for 1 pound of Yorkshire pudding?

Wilmer,
Thank you for your reply...and yes, it should be enough for the pudding!
P.N.
 
Hobo5 said:
Thank you again for getting back to me...but can you please explain the four shillings and the ha'penny?
P.N.

- - - Updated - - -
Wilmer,
Thank you for your reply...and yes, it should be enough for the pudding!
P.N.
As I said before, Since 1 pound is 4.86 dollars, 1 dollar is 1/4.86 pounds= 0.206 pounds. Now, you need to know that there are 20 shilling in a pounds so 0.206 pounds is 20(0.206)= 4.12 shillings. And there are 12 pence per shilling so 12(0.12)= 1.44 pence. I would say that is closer to 4 shilling two pence than 4 shilling ha'penny (half-penny).
 
Country Boy said:
As I said before, Since 1 pound is 4.86 dollars, 1 dollar is 1/4.86 pounds= 0.206 pounds. Now, you need to know that there are 20 shilling in a pounds so 0.206 pounds is 20(0.206)= 4.12 shillings. And there are 12 pence per shilling so 12(0.12)= 1.44 pence. I would say that is closer to 4 shilling two pence than 4 shilling ha'penny (half-penny).

Got it.
Thanks again.
 
  • #10
Country Boy said:
As I said before, Since 1 pound is 4.86 dollars, 1 dollar is 1/4.86 pounds= 0.206 pounds. Now, you need to know that there are 20 shilling in a pounds so 0.206 pounds is 20(0.206)= 4.12 shillings. And there are 12 pence per shilling so 12(0.12)= 1.44 pence. I would say that is closer to 4 shilling two pence than 4 shilling ha'penny (half-penny).

Fair enough. Let one read up! Understanding old British money - pounds, shillings and pence
 
  • #11
I really should have written "tuppence"!
 
  • #12
Country Boy said:
I really should have written "tuppence"!
When I started this thread it revolved around 1927. In those days, I guess you could have got something for "tuppence"!
Have a good one,
P.N.
 
  • #13
I confess. I falsified my results just so I could say "ha'penny". I mean, how often do you get to say that?!
 
  • #14
I think "tuppence" is cooler!
 
  • #15
Country Boy said:
I think "tuppence" is cooler!

O.K., I'll see your "tuppence" and raise you...thruppence! How do you like that, mate?
 
  • #16
Country Boy said:
I think "tuppence" is cooler!

Yup. Cool!
 
  • #17
Does anyone (other than me) remember that Agatha Christie wrote a series of mysteries featuring "Tommy and Tuppence" a married couple. I don't believe it was ever explained where the woman got the nickname "Tuppence". One remarkable thing about the series was that, unlike Miss Marple or Inspector Poirot, they aged in "real time". In the first novel, they were young "flappers" in their early twenties. In the last novel, written 50 years later, they were in their 70s with grand children (and she was still called "Tuppence").

Ah, well, back to mathematics.
 
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