- #1
SiddharthM
- 176
- 0
counterexample so that (ab)^i=a^ib^i for two consecutive integers for any a and b in a group G does not imply that G is abelian.
this is a problem in herstein and I'm struggling to find an example. The previous problem to show that if (ab)^i=a^ib^i for 3 consecutive integers then G is abelian is a starred problem but seems to be easier.
this is a problem in herstein and I'm struggling to find an example. The previous problem to show that if (ab)^i=a^ib^i for 3 consecutive integers then G is abelian is a starred problem but seems to be easier.