Cutting off our Ignorance:renormalization

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In summary, the chapter discusses the concept of renormalization and regularization in quantum field theory, specifically in the context of meson-meson scattering in \lambda^{4} theory. The author introduces a cutoff \Lambda to regulate the diverging \lambda^{2}-term in the scattering amplitude M. The question arises about the exact meaning of the coupling parameter \lambda, which is clarified by defining a physical coupling constant \lambda_{P} through the identity M = -i\lambda_{P} . This ensures that the physical scattering amplitude M includes all orders of \lambda, and the dependence on the cutoff \Lambda is absorbed into a redefinition of \lambda. While this may seem like an unintuitive relationship, it is the only meaningful
  • #1
haushofer
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Hi,

I have a question about the "QFT in a nutshell"-book by A. Zee, chapter 3.1 (page 148-149). It's about renormalization and regularization, and I still don't get the exact point.

Zee looks at meson-meson scattering in [itex]\lambda^{4}[/itex] theory. The [itex]\lambda^{2}[/itex]-term is a diverging integral, as can easily be seen. Now, the introduction of a cutt-off [itex]\Lambda[/itex] is clear to me; you don't expect theories to be valid for all energies, so you regularize your integral. After some rewriting, the scattering amplitude M up to second order in [itex]\lambda[/itex] becomes

[tex]
M = -i\lambda + iC\lambda^{2}[\log{\Lambda^{2}/s}]+ O(\lambda^{3})
[/tex]

Here the [itex]\log{\Lambda^{2}/s}[/itex]-term is actually the sum of 3 terms with kinematic variables in them, but their exact form doesn't concern us; we focus on one kinematic variable s.

Now, the question in this chapter is: what does [itex]\lambda[/itex] exactly mean? Zee introduces [itex]\lambda_{P}[/itex], a physical coupling constant as measured by an actual experiment. Then, after formula (3) he states that "according to our theory",

[tex]
-i\lambda_{P} = -i\lambda + iC\lambda^{2}[\log{\Lambda^{2}/s_{0}}]+ O(\lambda^{3})
[/tex]

where [itex]s_{0}[/itex] is the value found of the kinematic variable s of the experiment. Why is this the case? Why is [itex]M = -i\lambda_{P} [/itex]? Does this physical coupling include ALL orders of [itex]\lambda[/itex] and so gives directly the physical scattering amplitude M because an experiment concears all of these lambda-orders?

He also states that [itex]\lambda[/itex] is a function of [itex]\Lambda[/itex] in order that the actual scattering amplitude M doesn't depend on [itex]\Lambda[/itex]. But for my feeling, [itex]\lambda[/itex] and [itex]\Lambda[/itex] are 2 different things, and I don't see intuitively why they should be related besides the invariance-argument.

Can anyone clarify things up to me? I've read quite some QFT-stuff and I'm also quite familiar with the idea of renormalization and regularization, but these pages keep troubling me. Thanks!
 
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  • #2
haushofer said:
Why is [itex]M = -i\lambda_{P} [/itex]?
Think on it from the point of view of an experimentalist. He can measure [itex]M[/itex], but he does not know much about quantum field theory. He knows only how to calculate the lowest (tree level) contribution of QFT to [itex]M[/itex], and this contribution is given by [itex]M = -i\lambda [/itex]. Thus, from his point of view, it is natural to DEFINE [itex]\lambda_{P} [/itex] through the identity
[itex]M = -i\lambda_{P} [/itex]
In other words, this equation should be understood as a definition of [itex]\lambda_{P} [/itex] natural from the point of view of an experimentalist.

So yes, this physical coupling includes ALL orders of [itex]\lambda[/itex] and so gives directly the physical scattering amplitude M because an experiment concerns all of these lambda-orders.
 
Last edited:
  • #3
haushofer said:
He also states that [itex]\lambda[/itex] is a function of [itex]\Lambda[/itex] in order that the actual scattering amplitude M doesn't depend on [itex]\Lambda[/itex]. But for my feeling, [itex]\lambda[/itex] and [itex]\Lambda[/itex] are 2 different things, and I don't see intuitively why they should be related besides the invariance-argument.
It is best to think on this stuff in a solid-state physics style. In a true fundamental theory, which we do not know, M depends both on [itex]\lambda[/itex] and [itex]\Lambda[/itex]. They are independent parameters. M also depends on some other parameters about which we can say nothing because we do not know the true fundamental theory. However, since we do not know the true theory, we want to parameterize physics in terms of quantities in the effective theory we do know, which is QFT. But pure QFT (i.e., QFT without a cutoff) does not have any free parameter [itex]\Lambda[/itex]. Therefore, we want to reformulate QFT with a cutoff such that all dependence on [itex]\Lambda[/itex] is eliminated. The only meaningful way to do it is to absorb the dependence on [itex]\Lambda[/itex] into a redefinition of the allowed parameter [itex]\lambda[/itex].
 
  • #4
Demystifier said:
Think on it from the point of view of an experimentalist. He can measure [itex]M[/itex], but he does not know much about quantum field theory. He knows only how to calculate the lowest (tree level) contribution of QFT to [itex]M[/itex], and this contribution is given by [itex]M = -i\lambda [/itex]. Thus, from his point of view, it is natural to DEFINE [itex]\lambda_{P} [/itex] through the identity
[itex]M = -i\lambda_{P} [/itex]
In other words, this equation should be understood as a definition of [itex]\lambda_{P} [/itex] natural from the point of view of an experimentalist.

So yes, this physical coupling includes ALL orders of [itex]\lambda[/itex] and so gives directly the physical scattering amplitude M because an experiment concerns all of these lambda-orders.

Ok, I see the point. Renormalization ofcourse in general only pops up at "loop-level" and beyond, not at tree-level.

Demystifier said:
It is best to think on this stuff in a solid-state physics style. In a true fundamental theory, which we do not know, M depends both on [itex]\lambda[/itex] and [itex]\Lambda[/itex]. They are independent parameters. M also depends on some other parameters about which we can say nothing because we do not know the true fundamental theory. However, since we do not know the true theory, we want to parameterize physics in terms of quantities in the effective theory we do know, which is QFT. But pure QFT (i.e., QFT without a cutoff) does not have any free parameter [itex]\Lambda[/itex]. Therefore, we want to reformulate QFT with a cutoff such that all dependence on [itex]\Lambda[/itex] is eliminated. The only meaningful way to do it is to absorb the dependence on [itex]\Lambda[/itex] into a redefinition of the allowed parameter [itex]\lambda[/itex].

Ok, but this is more or less the "invariance argument" I mentioned. I can see this is the "only meaningful way", but as I understand from your text this is more or less the only argument (so I shouldn't try to find an intuitive reason why the cutt-off and the coupling parameter should be related)?

Thanks for your clear answer! It's very nice to exchange thoughts about this kind of stuff; it can clearify things in minutes which normally would take days or perhaps weeks :D
 
  • #5
haushofer said:
but as I understand from your text this is more or less the only argument (so I shouldn't try to find an intuitive reason why the cutt-off and the coupling parameter should be related)?
As far as I know, there is no other (more intuitive) reason for this. If you find some, let me know! :smile:
 
  • #6
Demystifier said:
As far as I know, there is no other (more intuitive) reason for this. If you find some, let me know! :smile:

Yeah sure, I will ;) But somehow this bothers me a little, so the quest is not over yet :D Thanks!
 
  • #7
Maybe this can help:
Theories with different values of [tex]\lambda[/tex] and [tex]\Lambda[/tex] can be thought of as theories with different measurable predictions. However, we cannot determine [tex]\Lambda[/tex] from experiments. Why not? Because for each value of [tex]\Lambda[/tex] there is a corresponding value of [tex]\lambda[/tex] such that measurable predictions (that is, M) will stay unchanged. Thus, the function [tex]\lambda(\Lambda)[/tex] can be thought of as a parameterization of a class of different theories that lead to the same measurable predictions.
 
  • #8
Demystifier said:
It is best to think on this stuff in a solid-state physics style. In a true fundamental theory, which we do not know, M depends both on [itex]\lambda[/itex] and [itex]\Lambda[/itex]. They are independent parameters. M also depends on some other parameters about which we can say nothing because we do not know the true fundamental theory. However, since we do not know the true theory, we want to parameterize physics in terms of quantities in the effective theory we do know, which is QFT. But pure QFT (i.e., QFT without a cutoff) does not have any free parameter [itex]\Lambda[/itex]. Therefore, we want to reformulate QFT with a cutoff such that all dependence on [itex]\Lambda[/itex] is eliminated. The only meaningful way to do it is to absorb the dependence on [itex]\Lambda[/itex] into a redefinition of the allowed parameter [itex]\lambda[/itex].

In this case, don't we know the true fundamental theory? It's a scalar [tex]\phi^4[/tex] theory. So [tex]\lambda[/tex] is a function of [tex]\Lambda [/tex].

If you start out with a cutoff however, then [tex]\lambda[/tex] and [tex]\Lambda[/tex] are independent, for one value only - the value of [tex]\lambda[/tex] at the cutoff. When you change your cutoff however, then [tex]\lambda[/tex] is a function of the cutoff in order to retain the same results.
 

1. What is renormalization?

Renormalization is a technique used in theoretical physics to correct for infinities that arise in certain calculations. It involves redefining the parameters of a theory to account for the effects of high energy processes.

2. Why is renormalization important?

Renormalization allows physicists to make accurate predictions about the behavior of systems at high energies, where theoretical models may break down. It also helps to unify different theories and make calculations more manageable.

3. How does renormalization work?

Renormalization involves integrating out high energy particles and using their effects to modify the parameters of a theory. This allows for a consistent description of the system at all energy scales.

4. What are the applications of renormalization?

Renormalization has been successfully applied to a wide range of physical phenomena, including quantum electrodynamics, the standard model of particle physics, and condensed matter systems.

5. Are there any limitations to renormalization?

While renormalization has been a powerful tool in theoretical physics, it is not a perfect solution. Some theories, such as quantum gravity, have proven difficult to renormalize, and there are still open questions about the validity of certain renormalization techniques.

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