Darwin term in a hydrogen atom - evaluating expectation values

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on evaluating expectation values in the context of quantum mechanics, specifically using the equation Δ = . The potential VC(r) is defined as -Ze²/r, and the participant struggles with calculating expectation values involving momentum operators and the Laplacian. Key points include the confusion surrounding the equivalence of the given equation and the standard form involving the Laplacian, as well as the need to understand the implications of the momentum operator on wavefunctions.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles, particularly expectation values
  • Familiarity with the momentum operator and its application in quantum systems
  • Knowledge of the Laplacian operator and its role in potential energy calculations
  • Basic proficiency in evaluating commutators in quantum mechanics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation and application of the Laplacian operator in quantum mechanics
  • Learn how to compute expectation values involving the momentum operator
  • Explore the properties of commutators and their significance in quantum mechanics
  • Review the mathematical treatment of hydrogen atom wavefunctions and their implications for potential energy calculations
USEFUL FOR

Students and researchers in quantum mechanics, particularly those focusing on atomic physics and the hydrogen atom, as well as anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of expectation values and operator algebra in quantum systems.

astrocytosis
Messages
51
Reaction score
2

Homework Statement


upload_2019-2-25_1-48-25.png


Homework Equations



VD= -1/(8m2c2) [pi,[pi,Vc(r)]]

VC(r) = -Ze2/r

Energy shift Δ = <nlm|VD|nlm>

The Attempt at a Solution



I can't figure out how to evaluate the expectation values that result from the Δ equation. When I do out the commutator, I get p2V-2pVp+Vp2. This results in expectation values such as <1/r2 p> and <1/r p2>. I'm not sure how to calculate them when there is a momentum operator hanging off the end like that, since I don't know the exact form of the wavefunction (n,l,m not specified) and don't know how to do the integral. Also, most online sources write VD in terms of the Laplacian of VC. I know the Laplacian arises from the momentum operator squared, but I am confused as to how this can be equivalent the equation given here.

My question is really just how to do Δ = <nlm|-1/(8m2c2) [pi,[pi,Vc(r)]]|nlm>.
 

Attachments

  • upload_2019-2-25_1-48-25.png
    upload_2019-2-25_1-48-25.png
    35.4 KB · Views: 1,357
Physics news on Phys.org
Remember that ##\nabla (AB) = B (\nabla A) + A (\nabla B)##, so imagine that the operators are applied to an arbitrary wave function ##\psi##.

What you have to be careful here is ##\nabla^2 \frac{1}{r}## (see eq. (24) in http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Laplacian.html).
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
5K
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K