Definite Integral challenge #3

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the definite integral $$\int_0^{\pi} e^{\cos x} \cos(\sin x)\,\,dx$$. Participants explore various methods for solving this integral, including the use of residues.

Discussion Character

  • Homework-related, Mathematical reasoning, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Post 1 presents the integral to be evaluated.
  • Post 2 questions the formulation of the integral, noting the absence of "dx".
  • Post 3 echoes the concern about the missing "dx" and receives acknowledgment from the original poster.
  • Post 4 expresses appreciation for a correct answer but does not specify what that answer is.
  • Post 5 introduces an alternative method for solving the integral that does not involve residues, indicating that the challenge remains open.
  • Post 6 reiterates the mention of an alternative method and clarifies the term "res" as referring to a residue.
  • Post 7 expresses enthusiasm about the discussion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants have not reached a consensus on the evaluation of the integral, as multiple methods and approaches are being discussed, and the challenge remains open.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved aspects regarding the methods for evaluating the integral, particularly concerning the use of residues and alternative approaches mentioned by participants.

Saitama
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Evaluate the following:
$$\int_0^{\pi} e^{\cos x} \cos(\sin x)\,\,dx$$
 
Last edited:
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Pranav said:
Evaluate the following:
$$\int_0^{\pi} e^{\cos x} \cos(\sin x)$$

Are you sure of the question because you are missing $dx$ ?
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
Are you sure of the question because you are missing $dx$ ?

Haha, nice catch! Edited. :o
 
$$\int_{0}^{\pi} e^{\cos x} \cos(\sin x) \ dx = \frac{1}{2} \text{Re} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} e^{e^{iz}} \ dz = \frac{1}{2} \text{Re} \frac{1}{i} \int_{|z|=1} \frac{e^{z}}{z} \ dz $$

$$ = \frac{1}{2} \text{Re} \frac{1}{i} 2 \pi i \ \text{Res} \left[ \frac{e^{z}}{z},0 \right] = \text{Re} \ \pi (1) = \pi $$
 
Last edited:
Random Variable said:
$$\int_{0}^{\pi} e^{\cos x} \cos(\sin x) \ dx = \frac{1}{2} \text{Re} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} e^{e^{iz}} \ dz = \frac{1}{2} \text{Re} \frac{1}{i} \int_{|z|=1} \frac{e^{z}}{z} \ dz $$

$$ = \frac{1}{2} \text{Re} \frac{1}{i} 2 \pi i \ \text{Res} \left[ \frac{e^{z}}{z},0 \right] = \text{Re} \frac{1}{i} \pi i(1) = \pi $$

Thank you for your participation, your answer is correct. :)
 
I forgot to mention in my previous post that there is still an alternative way which does not use the "res" thing used by Random Variable. The challenge is still open. :)
 
Pranav said:
I forgot to mention in my previous post that there is still an alternative way which does not use the "res" thing used by Random Variable. The challenge is still open. :)

It's called a residue. Someday... ;)
 
$$I = Re \int^\pi_0 e^{e^{ix}}\,dx = Re \int^\pi_0 \sum_{n\geq 0} \frac{e^{inx}}{n!} \, dx=\int^\pi_0 \sum_{n\geq 0} \frac{\cos(nx)}{n!}=\int^\pi_0 1 \, dx +\int^\pi_0 \sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{\cos(nx)}{n!} \,dx=\pi+0 =\pi$$
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
$$I = Re \int^\pi_0 e^{e^{ix}}\,dx = Re \int^\pi_0 \sum_{n\geq 0} \frac{e^{inx}}{n!} \, dx=\int^\pi_0 \sum_{n\geq 0} \frac{\cos(nx)}{n!}=\int^\pi_0 1 \, dx +\int^\pi_0 \sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{\cos(nx)}{n!} \,dx=\pi+0 =\pi$$

Excellent! :cool:
 

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