Definite integral over random interval

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the evaluation of a definite integral where the limits of integration are random variables, specifically exploring how to determine the probability density function (pdf) of the resulting integral value. The scope includes theoretical considerations and mathematical reasoning related to random variables and integrals.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests using the fundamental theorem of calculus to evaluate the integral, providing a specific case with Bernoulli random variables for a and b.
  • Another participant proposes calculating the cumulative distribution function (cdf) P[v<=y] as a method to approach the problem, indicating the potential utility of visualizing the 2D region of points (a,b).
  • A different approach is introduced that defines a function y(a,b) representing the integral and expresses the joint pdf of a, b, and v using the Dirac delta function, leading to a marginal pdf for v.
  • It is noted that the evaluation of the integral depends on the order of a and b, requiring separate cases for when b is greater than or equal to a and when a is greater than or equal to b.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants present multiple competing approaches to the problem, with no consensus on a single method or solution. Different strategies are proposed, indicating a variety of perspectives on how to handle the integration of random variables.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the complexity of integrating functions over random intervals, with assumptions about the independence of a and b and the implications of different probability distributions not fully resolved.

benjaminmar8
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Hi, all,

assuming a and b are random variables and their pdf f(a) and f(b) are known. then, how do I solve for the definite integral given as [tex]v=\int\limits_{a}^{b} g(x) dx[/tex], where g(x) is a function of x? or, how do I solve the pdf of v?

Thanks a lot..
 
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I think the answer is "use the fundamental theorem of calculus." Operationally, suppose each of a and b is Bernoulli with probabilities p and q: Pr[a = a1] = 1 - Pr[a = a2] = p, Pr[b = b1] = 1 - Pr[b = b2] = q.

Then:
v = G[b1] - G[a1] with prob = pq,
v = G[b2] - G[a1] with prob. p(1-q)
v = G[b1] - G[a2] with prob. (1-p)q
v = G[b2] - G[a2] with prob (1-p)(1-q)

where "the integral of g from a to b" = G - G[a].
 
Another approach is to first work out the cdf P[v<=y]. To do this (assuming a and b are independent) it might be helpful to sketch the 2d region of points (a,b) where G-G[a]<=y.
 
If we define that
[tex]y(a,b)=\int\limits_{b=-\infty}^{\infty} \int\limits_{a}^{b} g(x) dx[/tex]
we can state the pdf over the joint space of variables a, b and v as
[tex]f(a,b,v) = \delta\left(v-y(a,b)\right)f(a)f(b)[/tex]
where [itex]\delta[/itex] is the Dirac delta function.

The pdf [itex]f(v)[/itex] of v is then the marginal of [itex]f(a,b,v)[/itex] with respect to a and b
[tex]f(v) = \int\limits_{a=-\infty}^{\infty} \int\limits_{b=-\infty}^{\infty} \delta\left(v-y(a,b)\right) f(a)f(b) db da[/tex]


The integral of g(x) can as stated above be evaluated using its primitive G(x):
[tex]\int\limits_{a}^{b} g(x) dx = G(b)-G(a) \quad \texttt{if} \quad b \geq a[/tex],
[tex]\int\limits_{a}^{b} g(x) dx = G(a)-G(b) \quad\texttt{if} \quad a \geq b[/tex]

We thus need to account for the two possible cases:
[tex] f(v) = <br /> \int\limits_{a=-\infty}^{\infty} \int\limits_{b=-\infty}^{a} <br /> \delta\left(v-G(a)+G(b)\right) <br /> f(a)f(b) db da<br /> +\int\limits_{a=-\infty}^{\infty} \int\limits_{b=a}^{\infty} <br /> \delta\left(v-G(b)+G(a)\right) <br /> f(a)f(b) db da[/tex]
 
Last edited:

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