kenyanchemist
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i have a question, why is the plot of r2(Ψ2p)2 not a good representation of the probability of finding an electron at a distance r from the nucleus in a 2p orbital
The discussion revolves around the interpretation of radial distribution functions in quantum mechanics, specifically regarding the probability of finding an electron at a distance r from the nucleus in a 2p orbital. Participants explore the mathematical formulation and implications of the wave function in spherical coordinates.
The discussion includes multiple viewpoints regarding the interpretation of the radial distribution functions and the mathematical treatment of the wave function. There is no consensus reached on the initial question posed.
Participants exhibit varying levels of familiarity with quantum mechanics, which may influence their understanding of the concepts discussed. Some mathematical steps and assumptions remain unresolved.
What do you mean by cancels?vanhees71 said:Well, in spherical coordinates you have
$$\mathrm{d}^3 \vec{x} = \mathrm{d} r \mathrm{d} \vartheta \mathrm{d} \varphi r^2 \sin \vartheta.$$
The wave function squared is the probability distribution. So the probability for finding a particle described by the wave function at a distance ##r## is
$$P(r)=\int_0^{\pi} \mathrm{d} \vartheta \int_0^{2 \pi} \mathrm{d} \varphi \, r^2 \sin \vartheta |\psi(r,\vartheta,\varphi)|^2.$$
Note that sometimes one writes
$$\psi(r, \vartheta,\varphi)=\frac{1}{r} u(r,\vartheta,\varphi),$$
because this ansatz simplifies the solution of the Schrödinger equation in spherical coordinates. In terms of ##u## the factor ##r^2## cancels in the above integral.
$$P(r)=\int_0^{\pi} \mathrm{d} \vartheta \int_0^{2 \pi} \mathrm{d} \varphi \, \sin \vartheta |u(r,\vartheta,\varphi)|^2.$$