How Is the Formula for Kinetic Energy Derived?

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The discussion clarifies the derivation of the kinetic energy formula K = 0.5mv^2, emphasizing that it represents kinetic energy, not average kinetic energy. It explains that the formula arises from the work-energy principle, where work done equals the change in kinetic energy. The relationship between force, mass, and acceleration is highlighted, leading to the conclusion that the work done on an object results in its kinetic energy change. Additionally, it notes that the formula reflects relative kinetic energy based on initial velocity conditions. Overall, the thread provides insights into the foundational concepts of kinetic energy in physics.
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Can someone please explain the derivation of the common formula for average kinetic energy: K = 0.5mv^2?
 
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Derivation of KE?

a = v^2 - v0^2 / 2d

ΣWork = ΣF * d = mad = 0.5m(v^2 - v0^2) = ke
 
First, K = 0.5mv^2 is not "average" kinetic energy- it is kinetic energy- in fact it is the definition of kinetic energy- there is no "derivation". At some time, back at the beginning of "physics" someone notice that, in many dynamics problems that quantity was conserved- so they gave it a name!
 
First, K = 0.5mv^2 is not "average" kinetic energy- it is kinetic energy- in fact it is the definition of kinetic energy- there is no "derivation". At some time, back at the beginning of "physics" someone notice that, in many dynamics problems that quantity was conserved- so they gave it a name!

Quantities, mv^2, 35mv^2, are also conserved!
 
Originally posted by PrudensOptimus


ΣWork = ΣF * d = mad = 0.5m(v^2 - v0^2) = ke

So ummmm ... This is relative kinetic energy not average kinetic energy?

That is, relative to the kinetic energy of the object when v0 = 0

Interesting derivation. Thanks.
 
energy is the ability to do work.

work is force times distance.

kinetic energy is that energy a body has due to its motion.

so let's see:

<br /> W=\int_A^B \mathbf{F}\cdot d\mathbf{s}<br />

but by Newton
<br /> \mathbf{F}=m\mathbf{a}<br />
so
<br /> W=\int_A^Bm\mathbf{a}\cdot d\mathbf{s} = m\int_{t_{A}}^{t_{B}}\mathbf{a}\cdot\mathbf{v}dt\\<br /> = \frac{m}{2}\int_{t_{A}}^{t_{B}}\frac{d(v^2)}{dt}\! dt = \frac{1}{2}mv_B^2 - \frac{1}{2}mv_A^2<br />

so you see that the work done is equal to the change in kinetic energy between the two points, and this is a derivation of the formula for that kinetic energy.
 
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The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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