Why Can't the Power Rule Be Used for the Derivative of Velocity Squared?

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The discussion centers on the differentiation of velocity squared in the context of physics, specifically relating to kinetic energy. When differentiating \( v(t)^2 \) with respect to time, the chain rule must be applied rather than the power rule because \( v \) is a function of time. This results in using the expression \( \frac{d(v(t))^2}{dt} = 2v \cdot v'(t) \), where \( v'(t) \) represents acceleration. The confusion arises from the assumption that the power rule can be applied directly without considering the dependency of \( v \) on time. Ultimately, the correct approach leads to the expression \( \frac{dT}{dt} = F \cdot v \), highlighting the importance of using the chain rule in this context.
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Homework Statement


This really isn't a specific homework problem. It is just something that I've never actually known the reason for. An example is in the derivation of:

\frac{dT}{dt} = F\dot v [\tex]<br /> <br /> In order to arrive at it, I replace T with 1/2mv^2[\tex] and assume m is constant and then I have to do the product rule on v^2 and I&amp;#039;m never sure why I can&amp;#039;t use the power rule. Any explanation is appreciated. &lt;br /&gt; &lt;br /&gt; On a side note, this makes sense to me when I substitute momentum in for one of the velocities and then do the product rule. I just don&amp;#039;t understand why I can&amp;#039;t leave it as velocity and use the power rule. Thanks!
 
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Well, v = v(t) is a function of t, and you are differentiating with respect to t.
So when you differentiate v(t)^2 you use the chain rule with u = v(t) and get
\frac{d(v(t))^2}{dt} = \frac{du}{dv} \frac{dv(t)}{dt} = (2v) (v&#039;(t))
where du/dv = d(v^2)/dv = 2 v, just like differentiating
(x^2 + 6)^2
with respect to x first gives you 2(x^2 + 6) by the power rule and then another factor of 2x because of the chain rule.

So, using v'(t) = a(t), and F = m v(t)
\frac{dT}{dt} = \frac12 m (2 v a) = m v a = F v
[If you want to treat v(t) as a vector, you need to be a little more careful as you will get some dot products]
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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