Deriving angular frequency for simple harmonic motion

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The discussion focuses on deriving the equation for angular frequency in simple harmonic motion of a spring, specifically showing that ω = √(k/m) from the force equation F = -kx. The user expresses confusion over the complex math involving Euler's identity and differential equations introduced by their teacher. They detail their approach by equating forces, leading to the relationship a + (k/m)x = 0, and derive displacement as x = A * Cos(ωt). By differentiating displacement to find velocity and acceleration, they substitute these into the motion equation, ultimately simplifying to arrive at the angular frequency formula. The thread emphasizes a step-by-step derivation while seeking a clearer understanding of the concepts involved.
AlexYH
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Homework Statement


Derive the equation for angular frequency for simple harmonic motion of a spring.


Homework Equations


Derive omega = sqrt(k/m) from F = -kx
(sorry i don't know how to use notation)


The Attempt at a Solution


I asked my teacher how to do this, and he used some crazy math I didn't learn yet, including Euler's identity and differential equations. I'm in an AP calculus bc class, and i understand differential equations, just not some aspects. Does anyone know a simple solution for this? Thanks in advance
 
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If F=ma and F=-kx

Then ma=-kx (by equating the forces.)

Which can be also written as ma+kx=0

or a+\frac{k}{m}x=0

Now if x is displacement, differentiating once with respect to time will give you velocity of the spring and then differentiating again with respect to time will give acceleration.

Displacement of a spring can be given by

x=A * Cos (\omega t)

where A is the Amplitude of motion and \omega is the angular frequency

Now Differenting once will give velocity;

v=-A\omega Sin(\omega t)

and again to give acceleration

a=-A \omega^{2} Cos(\omega t)

Now substituting our formula for Acceleration and displacement into our equation of motion

a+\frac{k}{m}x=0

Gives -A \omega^{2} Cos(\omega t) +\frac{k}{m}A Cos (\omega t)=0

Which can be rearranged to;

A(-\omega^{2} +\frac{k}{m})Cos(\omega t)=0

Can get rid of the A and Cos(\omega t)

which leaves -\omega^{2} +\frac{k}{m}=0

which can be rearranged to \omega=\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}}
 
tjr39 said:
If F=ma and F=-kx

Then ma=-kx (by equating the forces.)

Which can be also written as ma+kx=0

or a+\frac{k}{m}x=0

or from here

that is in the form a=-\omega^2x

where \omega^2=\frac{k}{m}
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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