Deriving formula for force by thought experiment

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers around the derivation of a formula for force based on a thought experiment involving a ball and its displacement. The initial hypothesis suggests that force is proportional to displacement (F = md) and inversely proportional to mass. However, participants clarify that the correct relationship is defined by Newton's second law (F = ma) and emphasize the importance of impulse and work in understanding force. Key points include the role of friction, the integration of force over time, and the distinction between instantaneous force and the total energy transferred during an impact.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Newton's laws of motion, particularly F = ma.
  • Familiarity with the concepts of impulse and work in physics.
  • Knowledge of the effects of friction on motion.
  • Basic grasp of vector quantities and their implications in physics.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the concept of impulse and its mathematical representation in physics.
  • Explore the relationship between force, work, and energy transfer in various scenarios.
  • Investigate the effects of friction on motion and how it alters the dynamics of force application.
  • Learn about vector quantities in physics and their significance in describing motion and forces.
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Physics students, educators, and anyone interested in understanding the principles of force, motion, and energy transfer in classical mechanics.

Boltzman Oscillation
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TL;DR
Was thinking of how I can derive force from a simple thought experiment but I came up with F = md where d is displacement. Why can it not be this?
Hi all, I was thinking punching a round ball on a flat surface and seeing how I could determine a formula for force from it. I thought the following:

1. The ball will go further the harder I punch and thus force must be proportional to displacement d.

2. Ball will go further if it is lighter thus force is inverse proportional to m.

This I came up with F = md. If I experimented I would assume to get the wrong answer since force is F=ma in classical physics. So I came up with the following to challenge the outcome of F=md:

1. displacement does not take into consideration friction.
2. Even if the formula was correct then it would be useless for determining gravity as the ball would eventually be stopped by the ground and if there is no ground and the ball was falling forever then the displacement would be infinite and the force would be infinite. This brings us back to 1 if we see the ground as 100% friction and no ground as 0% friction.

Are there any other ideas I'm missing as to why F != md?
 
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If you choose not a round ball but spring displacement for your thought experiment, you will be able to get force in proportion to d.
 
Boltzmann Oscillation said:
Are there any other ideas I'm missing as to why F != md?
I feel like you've done this backwards. Instead of asking why ISN'T force proportional to MD, ask why force IS proportional to MD. Otherwise the only real answer you can get is, "That's not how nature works".
This way, if you do find a situation in which f=md, you only have one situation to describe, not an infinite number of examples or explanations of why it doesn't.
 
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Boltzmann Oscillation said:
Are there any other ideas I'm missing as to why F != md?
You are assuming that the strength of the impact of fist on ball is characterized by "force". It is not.

If one multiplies (actually integrates) the force of the impact by the duration of the impact, one can get "impulse" -- the amount of momentum transferred.

If one multiplies (actually integrates) the force of the impact by the distance traversed during the impact, one can get "work" -- the amount of energy transferred.
 
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Drakkith said:
I feel like you've done this backwards. Instead of asking why ISN'T force proportional to MD, ask why force IS proportional to MD. Otherwise the only real answer you can get is, "That's not how nature works".
This way, if you do find a situation in which f=md, you only have one situation to describe, not an infinite number of examples or explanations of why it doesn't.
Interesting, I should be asking why something is and not isn't in order to reduce the answers. Thank you for the advice!
 
jbriggs444 said:
You are assuming that the strength of the impact of fist on ball is characterized by "force". It is not.

If one multiplies (actually integrates) the force of the impact by the duration of the impact, one can get "impulse" -- the amount of momentum transferred.

If one multiplies (actually integrates) the force of the impact by the distance traversed during the impact, one can get "work" -- the amount of energy transferred.
I'm sorry are you saying that the strength of the impact is not related to force? What do you mean by that? If I hit a ball with more force than someone else did to a similar ball than my ball would go further would it not?
 
anuttarasammyak said:
If you choose not a round ball but spring displacement for your thought experiment, you will be able to get force in proportion to d.
Ah, another classic problem. Thank you, I will try to work this one out similarly and see what I can get.
 
Boltzmann Oscillation said:
I'm sorry are you saying that the strength of the impact is not related to force? What do you mean by that? If I hit a ball with more force than someone else did to a similar ball than my ball would go further would it not?
Not necessarily. It depends on more than just a single number for force.

For a ball projected on a flat surface with kinetic friction, the distance traveled will scale with energy transferred. A fellow applying a small force with a shuffleboard stick can get as much distance as another fellow applying a large force with a hammer.
 
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Boltzmann Oscillation said:
If I hit a ball with more force than someone else did to a similar ball than my ball would go further would it not?
What matters is the force integrated over the collision duration, not the maximal value of force reached.
 
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Boltzmann Oscillation said:
If I hit a ball with more force than someone else did to a similar ball than my ball would go further would it not?
It would have a greater acceleration. That's Newton's second law.
 
  • #11
Boltzmann Oscillation said:
Are there any other ideas I'm missing as to why F != md?
Force is a vector:

Explain circular motion, where force and velocity are orthogonal.

Distance is frame dependent. If you hit something that's already moving It may stop.

Without friction or orher retarding forces, the total distance is infinite for any force given as a single impulse.

The units are wrong.

...
 
  • #12
Boltzmann Oscillation said:
If I hit a ball with more force than someone else did to a similar ball than my ball would go further would it not?
No. Strike a cannonball with a hammer and see how far it goes. The answer is almost nowhere even though the instantaneous force of the strike was large.

Now shoot the cannonball from a cannon. The pressure on the ball acts for the whole time the ball is in the barrel. But the maximum force on the ball may be less than the maximum with the hammer.

As others said, force times time is what counts. Not force alone. If the force varies with time, then force times time becomes the integral of force with respect to time.
 
  • #13
jbriggs444 said:
Not necessarily. It depends on more than just a single number for force.

For a ball projected on a flat surface with kinetic friction, the distance traveled will scale with energy transferred. A fellow applying a small force with a shuffleboard stick can get as much distance as another fellow applying a large force with a hammer.
I see what you mean. Thank you.
 

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