Deriving Geodesic Equation from Lagrangian

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around deriving the geodesic equation from a Lagrangian for a massive particle constrained to a Riemannian manifold. Participants explore the application of the Euler-Lagrange equations and the implications of using proper time versus coordinate time in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a derivation of the geodesic equations using the Lagrangian defined in terms of the metric tensor and kinetic energy.
  • Another participant questions the use of proper time versus coordinate time in the derivation, suggesting that the metric is a function of the spatial coordinates.
  • Some participants assert that the problem is fundamentally classical mechanics, arguing that it should not be categorized under relativity.
  • There is a suggestion that discussing proper time in the context of a classical mechanics problem may lead to confusion.
  • One participant notes that without specifying the metric, the discussion could apply to both classical and relativistic physics.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the topic is rooted in classical mechanics, but there is disagreement regarding the relevance of proper time in the derivation and the appropriate forum for the discussion. The discussion remains unresolved on these points.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions about the metric and its dependence on spatial coordinates are not fully explored, and there is ambiguity regarding the classification of the problem within the context of classical versus relativistic physics.

acegikmoqsuwy
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Hi,

If I have a massive particle constrained to the surface of a Riemannian manifold (the metric tensor is positive definite) with kinetic energy $$T=\dfrac 12mg_{\mu\nu} \dfrac{\text dx^{\mu}}{\text dt} \dfrac{\text dx^{\nu}}{\text dt}$$ then I believe I should be able to derive the geodesic equations for this manifold by applying the Euler-Lagrange equations to the Lagrangian $$L:=g_{\mu \nu}\dfrac{\text dx^{\mu}}{\text dt} \dfrac{\text dx^{\nu}}{\text dt}.$$ However, when I go to do this, here's what I find: $$\dfrac{\partial L}{\partial x^{\sigma}} = \dfrac{\partial g_{\mu\nu}}{\partial x^{\sigma}} \dfrac{\text dx^{\mu}}{\text dt}\dfrac{\text dx^{\nu}}{\text dt}.$$ Moreover, $$\dfrac{\text d}{\text dt}\left(\dfrac{\partial L}{\partial (\text dx^{\sigma}/\text dt)}\right)=\dfrac{\text d}{\text dt}\left(2g_{\sigma\mu} \dfrac{\text dx^{\mu}}{\text dt}\right)=2g_{\sigma\mu} \dfrac{\text d^2x^{\mu}}{\text dt^2}.$$ Setting these expressions equal and multiplying by the inverse metric, I obtain $$\dfrac{\text d^2x^{\tau}}{\text dt^2} - \dfrac 12 g^{\tau\sigma}\dfrac{\partial g_{\mu\nu}}{\partial x^{\sigma}} \dfrac{\text dx^{\mu}}{\text dt} \dfrac{\text dx^{\nu}}{\text dt} = 0.$$ This looks similar to the geodesic equation, but something is off about the "Christoffel Symbols" of this equation.

What's wrong with my derivation? Any help is appreciated. Thanks.
 
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You're using ##t## for proper time, not coordinate time, right?

If you take the derivative of ##2g_{\sigma \mu} \frac{dx^\mu}{dt}## you get ##2 \frac{d g_{\sigma \mu}}{dt} \frac{dx^\mu}{dt} + 2 g_{\sigma \mu} \frac{d^2 x^\mu}{dt^2}##. I know that ##g_{\sigma \mu}## is not explicitly a function of ##t##, but it is a function of ##x^\lambda##. You use the chain rule (or whatever it's called):

##\frac{d g_{\sigma \mu}}{dt} = \frac{\partial g_{\sigma \mu}}{\partial x^\lambda} \frac{dx^\lambda}{dt}##
 
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Why is this in the relativity forum? It is purely classical mechanics.

stevendaryl said:
You're using ##t## for proper time, not coordinate time, right?

It is a massive particle constrained to move freely on a manifold. Think spherical pendulum with g being the metric on the sphere. It has nothing to do with proper time.
 
Yes, this is purely classical mechanics. I posted in here because I was going to have some follow up questions regarding relativity, but I've resolved them now. Thanks.
 
acegikmoqsuwy said:
Yes, this is purely classical mechanics. I posted in here because I was going to have some follow up questions regarding relativity, but I've resolved them now. Thanks.
I would suggest you do not do things this way. You managed to confuse one poster (who anyway was able to help you, but it could have been worse). Instead, I suggest you post questions where they belong and if you have follow-ups or spin-offs more suited for a different part of the forum they can be posted in a new thread.
 
Orodruin said:
Why is this in the relativity forum? It is purely classical mechanics.
Thanks. Moved.
 
Orodruin said:
Why is this in the relativity forum? It is purely classical mechanics.
It is a massive particle constrained to move freely on a manifold. Think spherical pendulum with g being the metric on the sphere. It has nothing to do with proper time.

Well, without specifying what the metric is, it works just as well for classical or relativistic physics.
 
stevendaryl said:
Well, without specifying what the metric is, it works just as well for classical or relativistic physics.
Of course, it is just the derivation of the geodesic equations, I am not arguing that. Just saying that it may be confusing to the OP to start talking about proper time for a classical mechanics problem (g is specified to be positive definite in the OP and it explicitly talks about a particle constrained to a manifold).
 

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