Yes, of course. Given [itex]f(x)= g(x)^{h(x)}[/itex] we have [itex]ln(f(x))= h(x)ln(g(x))[/itex], then [itex]\frac{1}{f(x)}\frac{df}{dx}= ln(g(x))\frac{dh}{dx}+ \frac{h(x)}{g(x)}\frac{dg}{dx}[/itex]
So [tex]\frac{df}{dx}= g(x)^{h(x)}\left(ln(g(x))\frac{dh}{dx}+ \frac{h(x)}{g(x)}\frac{dg}{dx}\right)[/tex]
Of course, the same is true if g and h are functions of x and y and you are taking the derivative with respect to x because you are treating y as a constant.
(This has nothing to do with differential equations.)