Deriving Torque=(Force)(Distance)

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on deriving the equation for torque, τ = Fd, from fundamental principles of rotational motion. The user attempts to connect linear motion equations to rotational dynamics but confuses angular acceleration with linear acceleration. Key points include the clarification that torque is defined as the cross product of the moment arm and force vectors, and the analogy to Newton's second law for rotational motion is correctly stated as Torque = I (rotational acceleration). The user is advised to correct their understanding of angular relationships and the proper application of derivatives in rotational contexts.

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  • Understanding of rotational dynamics and torque
  • Familiarity with Newton's laws of motion
  • Basic knowledge of calculus, particularly derivatives
  • Concept of moment arm and cross product in physics
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  • Learn about the cross product and its application in physics
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Cyrus Hafezparast
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So there was a really old thread about this, but I don't think the matter was ever really resolved, which is why I'm making this thread now.

I'm trying to derive the equation τ = Fd but I've run into a bit of trouble. I started with x=θr where x is the arclength on a circle (since any point on a rotating rigid body is going to follow a circular path) and then, from that, v=ωr and differentiating again to a=r(dθ/dt) . Now multiple by m on both sides and you have
ma=rm(dθ/dt)
∴F=r τ [Perhaps this is the source of my error, but I'm taking f=ma as general and applying it to mass times angular acceleration to give angular force (Torque)]
Which is not what we wanted at all!

(PS I'm new to the forum, I made an account just for this question, so I realize that my formatting needs work, I couldn't easily see how to write the derivative nicely as a fraction like I've seen in other threads, I couldn't decide whether to write my working line by line or not etc etc, please be nice XD I also didn't know which prefix to use, but where I live there's no calculus in our high school physics course and most people in my classes aren't really questioning to this extent, so I thought I'd put Intermediate)
 
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I tend to think about the cross product of the moment arm and force vectors as the definition of torque rather than something that can be derived.
 
Dr. Courtney said:
I tend to think about the cross product of the moment arm and force vectors as the definition of torque rather than something that can be derived.
Right, I see that and its the answer that almost every source I've seen gives, but it seems like there should be some justification? Also, if you could point out where I went wrong that would put my mind at rest as well.
 
The analogy to Newton's 2nd for rotational motion is

Torque = I (rotational acceleration)

NOT

Torque = m (rotational velocity)

which is what your "derivation" seems to suggest.
 
Cyrus Hafezparast said:
v=ωr and differentiating again to a=r(dθ/dt)

a=r(dθ/dt) is not the time derivative of v=ωr. Both of the right hand sides are equal to each other, but the left hand sides are not.

Remember: ω simply is (dθ/dt).
 
spamanon said:
a=r(dθ/dt) is not the time derivative of v=ωr. Both of the right hand sides are equal to each other, but the left hand sides are not.

Remember: ω simply is (dθ/dt).
a=r(dθ/dt) These equation is not correct one .If it was written as a second derivative it becomes true it seems for me it is a typing error.
 

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