Determine electrical power generated by changing B-field through a loop

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the electrical power generated by a circular loop of radius a and resistance R placed in a changing magnetic field described by B(t) = B_0 * e^(-t). Using Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, the electromotive force (Emf) is derived as Emf = πa^2 B_0 * e^(-t). The power in the circuit is then calculated using the formula power = (Emf^2) / R, resulting in power = (πa^2 B_0)^2 / R when t = 0. The solution is confirmed as correct by the original poster.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
  • Knowledge of electromotive force (Emf) calculations
  • Familiarity with power calculations in electrical circuits
  • Basic concepts of magnetic fields and their time dependence
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the applications of Faraday's law in different electromagnetic systems
  • Explore the implications of changing magnetic fields on electrical circuits
  • Learn about the relationship between resistance, voltage, and power in circuits
  • Investigate advanced topics in electromagnetic induction, such as Lenz's law
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for physics students, electrical engineers, and anyone interested in understanding the principles of electromagnetic induction and power generation in circuits.

Rijad Hadzic
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Homework Statement


A circular loop of radius a and resistance R is placed in a changing magnetic field so that the field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magnetic field varies with time as B(t) = B_0 * e^(-t) where B_0 is a constant. Determine the electrical power in the circuit when t = 0

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


so according to faraday-lenz law

Emf = -Nd(Mflux)/dt

I don't have to worry about N, so

Emf = -d(Mflux)/dt

M flux = BA (no cos since field is perpendicular)

B = B(t) = B_0 * e^(-t)
A = (πa^2)

A is constant, I can pull it out of the derivative, B_0 is as well, so pull that out

Emf = -πa^2 B_0 * d(e^(-t)) / dt

Emf = -πa^2 B_0 * -e^(-t)

Emf = πa^2 B_0 * e^(-t)

Since power = I V

and I = V / R

power = V^2 / R

Plug in Emf for V

power = (πa^2 B_0 * e^(-t) )^2 / R

when t = 0, e^(-t ) = 1

so power = (πa^2 B_0 )^2 / R

and that's my answer.. is this correct? Sorry I hate posting these "am I right or not!?" posts but my book doesn't have the answer to this one sadly :(
 
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I couldn't see a mistake.
 

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