Determine ## \sum \frac{1}{n^{p}ln(n)} ## diverges for 0<p<1

  • Thread starter DotKite
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In summary, the conversation discusses different methods for determining the convergence or divergence of the series ## \sum \frac{1}{n^{p}ln(n)} ## for 0 < p < 1. The poster suggests using the cauchy condensation test and the ratio test to show that the series diverges for this range of p. Another suggestion is to use the comparison ## \frac{1}{n^pln(n)}>\frac{1}{nln(n)} ## for 0 < p < 1. A more elegant solution is proposed where k is chosen such that p + k < 1 and ##\ln(n)/n^k \to 0## as ##n \to \infty
  • #1
DotKite
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1

Homework Statement



## \sum \frac{1}{n^{p}ln(n)} ##

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



All the common tests I have tried are inconclusive. I have the feeling that direct comparison test is the way to go, but I cannot seem to find what to compare ## \frac{1}{n^{p}ln(n)} ## to.
 
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  • #2
Try plugging in [itex] p=1 [/itex] and see whether that one diverges first, from there it should be easy.
 
  • #3
i don't see how plugging p=1 gets you anywhere other than showing that it diverges for p=1. For p=1 you can use integral test.

I ended up using cauchy condensation test http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy_condensation_test

Then showed that the series in this test diverges (using ratio test) for 0<p<1 thus implying the original diverges
 
  • #4
I think kontejnjer's point is that once you establish that it diverges for p=1, you can use the comparison [itex] \frac{1}{n^pln(n)}>\frac{1}{nln(n)} [/itex] for [itex] 0<p<1 [/itex]
 
  • #5
HS-Scientist said:
I think kontejnjer's point is that once you establish that it diverges for p=1, you can use the comparison [itex] \frac{1}{n^pln(n)}>\frac{1}{nln(n)} [/itex] for [itex] 0<p<1 [/itex]

ah hah. much more elegant
 
  • #6
DotKite said:
ah hah. much more elegant

Even more elegant: choose k > 0 so that p + k < 1. Since ##\ln(n)/n^k \to 0## as ##n \to \infty,## we have ##\ln(n) \leq n^k## for all ##n \geq N(k)##, where ##N(k)## is finite.
Thus, for ##n \geq N(k)## we have
[tex] \frac{1}{n^p \ln(n)} \geq \frac{1}{n^{p+k}} \geq \frac{1}{n} [/tex]
 

1. What does the notation "## \sum \frac{1}{n^{p}ln(n)} ##" mean?

The notation "## \sum \frac{1}{n^{p}ln(n)} ##" represents a series, where the terms are given by the expression "## \frac{1}{n^{p}ln(n)} ##" and the summation is taken over all positive integer values of n.

2. What does it mean for a series to diverge?

When a series diverges, it means that the sum of its terms goes to infinity as you add more and more terms. In other words, the series does not have a finite sum.

3. Why does the series "## \sum \frac{1}{n^{p}ln(n)} ##" diverge for values of p between 0 and 1?

This series is known as the generalized harmonic series, and it is known to diverge for values of p less than or equal to 1. This can be shown using the Cauchy condensation test or by comparing it to the harmonic series, which is also known to diverge.

4. Can the divergence of the series "## \sum \frac{1}{n^{p}ln(n)} ##" be proven using the integral test?

Yes, the integral test can be used to show that the series "## \sum \frac{1}{n^{p}ln(n)} ##" diverges for values of p between 0 and 1. This test states that if the integral of the term function, in this case "## \frac{1}{x^{p}ln(x)} ##", from 1 to infinity is divergent, then the series is also divergent.

5. Are there any exceptions to the divergence of the series "## \sum \frac{1}{n^{p}ln(n)} ##" for values of p between 0 and 1?

The series "## \sum \frac{1}{n^{p}ln(n)} ##" is known to diverge for all values of p between 0 and 1, with the exception of the special case p=1. In this case, the series becomes the natural logarithm series, which is known to converge.

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