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Just because
\phi(ab) = \phi(a)\phi(b)
for some particular a and b does not imply that it works for every a and b. This is the problem. A homomorphism requires it to work for any choices. Thus you didn't prove that anything was a homomorphism or a bijection (although it is certainly possible to find bijections and homomorphisms between the two. It is not possible to find an isomorphism, ie. a function that is both a bijection and a homomorphism. This is what you need to prove).
And actually I spoke a little too soon in my last post (I need to read more carefully!). In Q, we find A^4B^2 =e(-e) = - e \neq e but in {\cal D}_4 we find R^4 \rho^2 = ee = e. So your example doesn't quite work anyways.
The most clear path to prove what you need is that that Muzza suggested:
Prove that if f(x) is an isomorphism between to groups then \mbox{ord}f(x) = \mbox{ord}x and then use the fact that I gave above of unequal numbers of elements of certain orders to get your result.
\phi(ab) = \phi(a)\phi(b)
for some particular a and b does not imply that it works for every a and b. This is the problem. A homomorphism requires it to work for any choices. Thus you didn't prove that anything was a homomorphism or a bijection (although it is certainly possible to find bijections and homomorphisms between the two. It is not possible to find an isomorphism, ie. a function that is both a bijection and a homomorphism. This is what you need to prove).
And actually I spoke a little too soon in my last post (I need to read more carefully!). In Q, we find A^4B^2 =e(-e) = - e \neq e but in {\cal D}_4 we find R^4 \rho^2 = ee = e. So your example doesn't quite work anyways.
The most clear path to prove what you need is that that Muzza suggested:
Prove that if f(x) is an isomorphism between to groups then \mbox{ord}f(x) = \mbox{ord}x and then use the fact that I gave above of unequal numbers of elements of certain orders to get your result.