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What does it mean for a ##f(x,y)## to be differentiable at ##(a,b)##? Do I have to somehow show ##f(x,y)-f(a,b)-\nabla f(a,b)\cdot \left( x-a,y-b \right) =0 ##? To show the function is not though, it's enough to show, using the limit definition, that the partial derivative approaching in one direction is not equal to the partial from another direction right?

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