Undergrad Differential operator vs one-form (covector field)

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The discussion centers on the definition of the differential of a smooth scalar function f: M → ℝ between smooth manifolds M and ℝ. It clarifies that the differential can be viewed as both a linear map between tangent spaces and as a one-form or covector field defined on the manifold M. The equivalence of these definitions is emphasized, particularly when considering the extension of the differential operator across all points in the manifold. The conversation also touches on the nature of covectors and their relationship to vectors, noting that covector fields can be seen as vector fields. Overall, the exchange highlights the nuanced perspectives in understanding differentials in the context of manifold theory.
cianfa72
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About the definition of differential operator of a scalar function as one-form or covector field
Hi, I'd like to ask for clarification about the definition of differential of a smooth scalar function ##f: M \rightarrow \mathbb R## between smooth manifolds ##M## and ##\mathbb R##.

As far as I know, the differential of a scalar function ##f## can be understood as:
  1. a linear map ##df()## between tangent spaces defined at each point of domain and target manifolds (##T_{p}M## and ##T_{q}\mathbb R##)
  2. a one-form or covector field ##df## defined on the domain manifold ##M##

In both cases ##d()## operator is actually the exterior derivative operator and both definitions should be actually equivalent.

Does it make sense ? Thank you.
 
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cianfa72 said:
TL;DR Summary: About the definition of differential operator of a scalar function as one-form or covector field

Hi, I'd like to ask for clarification about the definition of differential of a smooth scalar function ##f: M \rightarrow \mathbb R## between smooth manifolds ##M## and ##\mathbb R##.

As far as I know, the differential of a scalar function ##f## can be understood as:
  1. a linear map ##df()## between tangent spaces defined at each point of domain and target manifolds (##T_{p}M## and ##T_{q}\mathbb R##)
  2. a one-form or covector field ##df## defined on the domain manifold ##M##

In both cases ##d()## operator is actually the exterior derivative operator and both definitions should be actually equivalent.

Does it make sense ? Thank you.
Yes. These are two ways to look at derivatives. It all depends on what you consider to be a variable: function, location, manifold, tangent vectors, or combinations of them.

The two definitions above are equivalent if you consider the union over all locations in the first definition, i.e. make it a (co-)vector field.
 
fresh_42 said:
The two definitions above are equivalent if you consider the union over all locations in the first definition, i.e. make it a (co-)vector field.
You basically mean "extend" the definition of differential operator on all the points on the manifold turning it into a field defined on it, right ?
 
Your first definition was a specific linear map at ##p## and the second one was a vector field from the beginning. This means you need to define ##\displaystyle{ df\, : \,\bigsqcup_{p\in M} T_pM\rightarrow \bigsqcup_{p\in M} T_{f(p)}\mathbb{R}}## simply to make them the same thing.
 
fresh_42 said:
Your first definition was a specific linear map at ##p## and the second one was a vector field from the beginning.
You mean a co-vector field, I believe.
 
cianfa72 said:
You mean a co-vector field, I believe.
This also only depends on the perspective. I admit that I tend to confuse the two, and from a mathematical point of view, they aren't very different. What is a slope ##s##? Is it the linear map "times ##s##" or is it the line with the slope ##s,## or is it the scalar ##s## we attach to the derivative a some point?

Your example consists of linear mappings from vector spaces into vector spaces. However, the codomain vector spaces are all ##T_q\mathbb{R}=\mathbb{R}.## So do you map vectors into the scalar field ##\mathbb{R}## making them covectors, or into the tangent space ##T_q\mathbb{R}## which would be a linear map? Linear maps on the other hand can be seen as ##(1,1)##-tensors, i.e. a linear combination of covectors.

I think the latter is the correct point of view in this case. We have a linear map ##d_pf\, : \,T_pM\longrightarrow T_{f(p)\mathbb{R}}## which can be written as
$$
d_pf(v)=\left(\sum_\rho u_\rho^*\otimes V_\rho\right)(v)=\sum_\rho u_\rho^*(v)\cdot V_\rho
$$
with covectors ##u_\rho^* \in (T_pM)^*\, , \,v\in T_pM,## and ##V_\rho\in T_{f(p)}\mathbb{R}.## I have treated ##\mathbb{R}## as a manifold here, i.e. as if ##f:M\rightarrow N## where a function between manifolds. That's why I have ##V_\rho \in T_{f(p)}\mathbb{R}## although in fact we only have one dimension and the entire vector space is spanned by ##1.## This means ##V_\rho = 1## in the above case. I just found the general case with ##V_\rho## better if we want to see what is happening. ##\ldots \cdot 1## isn't very enlightening.

So you are right, covector field. I have written vector field because it is the more general term. A covector field is always a vector field, too, since covectors are vectors. This way, i.e. by writing vector field, I tried to avoid thinking about what you urged me to write in this post here anyway.

Edit: The ##u_\rho## are multiples of the basis ##dx_\rho## in this case.
 
fresh_42 said:
This means you need to define ##\displaystyle{ df\, : \,\bigsqcup_{p\in M} T_pM\rightarrow \bigsqcup_{p\in M} T_{f(p)}\mathbb{R}}## simply to make them the same thing.

Here ##\displaystyle { \bigsqcup_{p\in M} T_pM}## and ##\displaystyle { \bigsqcup_{p\in M} T_{f(p)}\mathbb R}## are actually tangent bundles ?
 
fresh_42 said:
Linear maps on the other hand can be seen as ##(1,1)##-tensors, i.e. a linear combination of covectors.
##(1,1)##-tensors should be actually a linear combination of tensor product of covectors times vectors.
 
  • #10
cianfa72 said:
##(1,1)##-tensors should be actually a linear combination of tensor product of covectors times vectors.
Sure, but the covectors can be evaluated. That gives you a linear combination of vectors
$$
d_pf(v)=\left(\sum_\rho u^*_\rho \otimes V_\rho\right)(v)=\sum_\rho u^*_\rho(v) \cdot V_\rho.
$$
Your example is
$$
d_pf=\sum_\rho u^*_\rho \otimes V_\rho =\sum_\rho u^*_\rho \otimes 1 =\sum_\rho u^*_\rho = \sum_\rho a_\rho {d_p}x_\rho
$$
which is a linear combination of the basis covectors ##dx_k## at ##p.##

Everything is a matter of perspective.
 
  • #11
fresh_42 said:
A covector field is always a vector field, too, since covectors are vectors.
Covectors are vectors in the sense that every element of a vector space is by definition a "vector" !

Edit: in my example above we have just one vector ##V## in the target 1-dimensional tangent space ##T_p\mathbb R=\mathbb R## at ##p##, hence it should be:

$$d_pf=\sum_\rho u^*_\rho \otimes V =\sum_\rho u^*_\rho \otimes 1 =\sum_\rho u^*_\rho = \sum_\rho a_\rho {d_p}x_\rho$$
 
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