Differentiation and Lebesgue integration

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the derivative of the function g(x), defined as the integral of a Lebesgue integrable function f, equals f at points of continuity. The context involves differentiation and Lebesgue integration.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the use of sequences to approach the limit definition of the derivative. There is mention of employing the dominated convergence theorem and the continuity of f to establish the necessary limits. Some participants suggest approximating the integral in terms of continuity, while others raise concerns about the clarity of the expressions used.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes various attempts to formulate a proof, with some participants providing detailed reasoning and others questioning specific steps or expressions. While there is no explicit consensus, several productive lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of continuity at the point y and the implications of the Lebesgue integrability of f. There are also indications of typographical errors in the expressions presented, which may affect clarity.

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Homework Statement


Suppose [itex]g(x) = \int_0^x f(t) dt[/itex], where [itex]f[/itex] is Lebesgue integrable on [itex]\mathbb R[/itex]. Give an [itex]\epsilon - \delta[/itex] proof that [itex]g'(y) = f(y)[/itex] if [itex]y\in (0,\infty)[/itex] is a point of continuity of [itex]f[/itex].


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I know I need to show that
[tex] f(y) = \lim_{h\to 0} \int_y^{y+h} \frac{1}{h} f(t) dt.[/tex]
My idea was to try to do this in terms of sequences; i.e., to let [itex]\{h_n\}[/itex] be any sequence of real numbers such that [itex]h_n \to 0[/itex], and then to phrase the limit above in terms of a limit as [itex]n\to \infty[/itex]. I had then planned to use something like the dominated convergence theorem. But I don't have any idea how to make use of the hypothesis that [itex]f[/itex] is continuous at [itex]y[/itex], so I'm not sure if this is the right approach.
 
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could you look at it as follows:
[tex]f(y) = \lim_{h\to 0} \frac{1}{h} \int_y^{y+h} f(t) dt[/tex]

then use the conitinuity of f to show that as h gets small
[tex]\int_y^{y+h} f(t) dt \approx f(t).h[/tex]
 
Ok. I think I know how to do this. Here is a complete solution: Let [itex]f \in L^1(\mathbb R)[/itex]. We want to show that, given any [itex]\epsilon > 0[/itex], we can find a [itex]\delta > 0[/itex] such that
[tex] \left| \frac{1}{h} \int_y^{y+h} f - f(y) \right| < \epsilon[/tex]
whenever [itex]|h| < \delta[/itex]. Since [itex]f[/itex] is continuous at [itex]y[/itex], we know we can find a [itex]\delta[/itex] such that [itex]|t - y| < \delta[/itex] implies [itex]|f(t) - f(y)| < \epsilon[/itex]. So, if we make [itex]|h| < \delta[/itex], we have
[tex] \begin{align*}<br /> \left| \frac{1}{h} \int_y^{y+h} f - f(y) \frac{1}{h} \int_y^{y+h} f \right|<br /> & \leq \frac{1}{h} \int_y^{y+h} \left| f(t) - f(y) \right| dt\\<br /> & \leq \frac{1}{h} \int_y^{y+h} \epsilon dt = \epsilon.<br /> \end{align*}[/tex]

That does it, I think.
 
There is a typo, you should write:
[tex] \left| \frac{1}{h} \int_y^{y+h} f - f(y) \right| =\Bigg|\frac{1}{h}\int_{y}^{y+h}f-f(y)\int_{y}^{y+h}\frac{1}{h}\Bigg|[/tex]
 

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