Dirac Delta/Mean Value Theorem Problem

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the application of the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) to the function \(\delta_{\epsilon}(x)\), defined piecewise for \(-\epsilon \leq x \leq \epsilon\). The integral \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) \delta_{\epsilon}(x) dx\) is shown to equal \(f(\theta)\) for some \(\theta\) within the interval \([- \epsilon, \epsilon]\). The solution involves substituting \(\epsilon\) with \(\sqrt{3}|\theta|\) to demonstrate that the integral evaluates to \(f(\theta)\) under the conditions specified. The discussion highlights the importance of correctly applying the MVT for integrals in this context.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Mean Value Theorem (MVT) for integrals.
  • Familiarity with piecewise functions and their properties.
  • Knowledge of continuous functions on \(\mathbb{R}\).
  • Basic proficiency in calculus, particularly integration techniques.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the First Mean Value Theorem for integration in detail.
  • Explore properties and applications of the Dirac delta function.
  • Investigate the implications of continuity in the context of integrals.
  • Learn about the relationship between \(\epsilon\) and \(\theta\) in limit processes.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, calculus instructors, and anyone interested in advanced integral calculus and the application of the Mean Value Theorem in analysis.

EdMel
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Homework Statement


Consider the function \delta_{\epsilon}(x) defined by
\delta_{\epsilon}(x)=\begin{cases}<br /> 0\text{,} &amp; x&lt;-\epsilon\text{,}\\<br /> \frac{3}{4\epsilon^{3}}(\epsilon^{2}-x^{2})\text{,} &amp; \epsilon\leq x\leq\epsilon\text{,}\\<br /> 0\text{,} &amp; \epsilon&lt;x\text{,}<br /> \end{cases}
(b) Consider a function f, defined on \mathbb{R}. which is continuous. Use
the Mean Value Theorem of integral calculus to show that
\overset{\infty}{\underset{-\infty}{\intop}}f(x)\delta_{\epsilon}(x)dx=f(\theta)
where -\epsilon\leq\theta\leq\epsilon.

Homework Equations


I guess the definition of \delta_{\epsilon}(x) implies \epsilon&gt;0, but I will assume this for my answer anyway.

I will refer to the Mean Value Theorem as MVT.

The Attempt at a Solution


Let,
I=\overset{\infty}{\underset{-\infty}{\intop}}f(x)\delta_{\epsilon}(x)dx=\overset{\epsilon}{\underset{-\epsilon}{\intop}}f(x)\delta_{\epsilon}(x)dx\quad\text{, as }\delta_{\epsilon}(x)=0\quad\forall\quad\vert x\vert\geq\epsilon\text{,}
=(\epsilon-(-\epsilon))f(\theta)\delta_{\epsilon}(\theta)\text{, } -\epsilon\leq\theta\leq\epsilon, by Mean Value Theorem,
=2\epsilon f(\theta)\frac{3}{4\epsilon^{3}}(\epsilon^{2}-\theta^{2})\\=f(\theta)\frac{3}{2\epsilon^{3}}(\epsilon^{2}-\theta^{2})
Then I am not sure how to proceed. I thought maybe there would be another application of MVT. The best argument I can come up with continues as ...
as \epsilon&gt;0 is arbitrary let \epsilon=\sqrt{3}\vert\theta\vert (-\epsilon\leq\theta\leq\epsilon is still satisfied), then
\frac{3}{2\epsilon^{3}}(\epsilon^{2}-\theta^{2})=\frac{3}{2(\sqrt{3}\vert\theta\vert)^{3}}((\sqrt{3}\vert \theta\vert)^{2}-\theta^{2})=1
so,
I=\overset{\infty}{\underset{-\infty}{\intop}}f(x)\delta_{\epsilon}(x)dx=f(\theta)\text{,}\quad \epsilon=\sqrt{3}\vert\theta\vert\text{.}
The problem I have now is the \theta we know exists by MVT is dependent on \epsilon we choose. Is it then valid to set \epsilon as a function of \theta?

Thanks in advance.
 
Last edited:
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EdMel said:

Homework Statement


Consider the function \delta_{\epsilon}(x) defined by
\delta_{\epsilon}(x)=\begin{cases}<br /> 0\text{,} &amp; x&lt;-\epsilon\text{,}\\<br /> \frac{3}{4\epsilon^{3}}(\epsilon^{2}-x^{2})\text{,} &amp; \epsilon\leq x\leq\epsilon\text{,}\\<br /> 0\text{,} &amp; \epsilon&lt;x\text{,}<br /> \end{cases}
(b) Consider a function f, defined on \mathbb{R}. which is continuous. Use
the Mean Value Theorem of integral calculus to show that
\overset{\infty}{\underset{-\infty}{\intop}}f(x)\delta_{\epsilon}(x)dx=f(\theta)
where -\epsilon\leq\theta\leq\epsilon.

Homework Equations


I guess the definition of \delta_{\epsilon}(x) implies \epsilon&gt;0, but I will assume this for my answer anyway.

I will refer to the Mean Value Theorem as MVT.

The Attempt at a Solution


Let,
I=\overset{\infty}{\underset{-\infty}{\intop}}f(x)\delta_{\epsilon}(x)dx=\overset{\epsilon}{\underset{-\epsilon}{\intop}}f(x)\delta_{\epsilon}(x)dx\quad\text{, as }\delta_{\epsilon}(x)=0\quad\forall\quad\vert x\vert\geq\epsilon\text{,}
=(\epsilon-(-\epsilon))f(\theta)\delta_{\epsilon}(\theta)\text{, } -\epsilon\leq\theta\leq\epsilon, by Mean Value Theorem,
=2\epsilon f(\theta)\frac{3}{4\epsilon^{3}}(\epsilon^{2}-\theta^{2})\\=f(\theta)\frac{3}{2\epsilon^{3}}(\epsilon^{2}-\theta^{2})
Then I am not sure how to proceed. I thought maybe there would be another application of MVT. The best argument I can come up with continues as ...
as \epsilon&gt;0 is arbitrary let \epsilon=\sqrt{3}\vert\theta\vert (-\epsilon\leq\theta\leq\epsilon is still satisfied), then
\frac{3}{2\epsilon^{3}}(\epsilon^{2}-\theta^{2})=\frac{3}{2(\sqrt{3}\vert\theta\vert)^{3}}((\sqrt{3}\vert \theta\vert)^{2}-\theta^{2})=1
so,
I=\overset{\infty}{\underset{-\infty}{\intop}}f(x)\delta_{\epsilon}(x)dx=f(\theta)\text{,}\quad \epsilon=\sqrt{3}\vert\theta\vert\text{.}
The problem I have now is the \theta we know exists by MVT is dependent on \epsilon we choose. Is it then valid to set \epsilon as a function of \theta?

Thanks in advance.

I think you aren't using the version of the MVT best suited to this problem. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mean_value_theorem#First_mean_value_theorem_for_integration
 
Last edited:

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