Direct product of abelian groups. Isomorphism.

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the isomorphism of finite abelian groups, specifically demonstrating that if \( A \times B \cong A \times C \), then \( B \cong C \). The participants highlight the importance of the kernel of the mapping \( \phi \) and the necessity of the structure theorem for finite abelian groups in this proof. A counterexample using \( A = B = C = \mathbb{Z}_2 \) illustrates the failure of the initial approach, emphasizing that the assumption of finiteness is crucial in the argument.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of finite abelian groups
  • Familiarity with group isomorphisms
  • Knowledge of the structure theorem for finite abelian groups
  • Basic concepts of kernel in group homomorphisms
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the structure theorem for finite abelian groups
  • Learn about group homomorphisms and their kernels
  • Explore examples of isomorphisms in finite abelian groups
  • Investigate counterexamples in group theory to understand limitations
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Mathematicians, particularly those specializing in abstract algebra, students studying group theory, and anyone interested in the properties of finite abelian groups and their isomorphisms.

caffeinemachine
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Let $A,B,C$ be finite abelian groups. Assume that $A\times B\cong A\times C$. Show that $B\cong C$.

I observed that $(A\times B)/(A\times\{e\})\cong B$ and $(A\times C)/(A\times\{e\})\cong C$.

So I need to show that $(A\times B)/(A\times\{e\})\cong (A\times C)/(A\times\{e\})$.

Let $\psi:A\times B\rightarrow A\times C$ be an isomorphism.

Define $\phi:A\times B \rightarrow (A\times C)/(A\times\{e\})$ as $\phi(a,b)=(\psi(a,b))(A\times\{e\})$.

If I could show that $\ker \phi=A\times\{e\}$ then I'd be done.

For that I need $\psi(a,e)\in A\times\{e\}$ for all $a\in A$, which I am unable to show and this might not even be true.

Please help.
 
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i don't have an answer, but i can tell you your approach is doomed.

let A = B = C = Z2.

we have the automorphism:

(1,0)-->(1,1)
(0,1)-->(1,0)

note that is is NOT true that the image of Z2x{0} is Z2x{0}, it is:

{(0,0),(0,1)}.

i feel that the assumption that G is finite abelian has to be used in some essential way, and your approach does not do that.
 
Opalg said:
I am no expert on group theory, but my feeling is that maybe you need to use the structure theorem for finite abelian groups for this problem.
I never thoroughly read he structure theorem. So I think now is the time to do that.
 
Deveno said:
i don't have an answer, but i can tell you your approach is doomed.

let A = B = C = Z2.

we have the automorphism:

(1,0)-->(1,1)
(0,1)-->(1,0)

note that is is NOT true that the image of Z2x{0} is Z2x{0}, it is:

{(0,0),(0,1)}.

i feel that the assumption that G is finite abelian has to be used in some essential way, and your approach does not do that.
Thank you.
 

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