I Direction of motion of particles with total spin under magnetic field

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The discussion focuses on the behavior of paramagnetic and diamagnetic particles in a magnetic field, referencing Griffiths' Introduction to Electrodynamics. It highlights that the magnetization force acting on a magnetic dipole is influenced by the magnetic moment and the magnetic field gradient. For paramagnetic particles, the force direction aligns with the gradient of the magnetic field, while diamagnetic particles experience the opposite effect. A key point raised is the effect of unpaired electron spins, questioning whether this leads to random motion in paramagnetic materials. Ultimately, it is clarified that the presence of a permanent magnetic moment alters the expected behavior under a magnetic field.
sal1854
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The magnetization force imposes paramagnetic materials to move in one direction. What about the fact that their unpaired electrons can have a spin up or down? Shouldn't they be able to move in both directions depending on the spin?
According to Chapter 8 of Griffiths' book Introduction to Electrodynamics, the magnetization force that acts on a magnetic dipole is

$$F_M=\nabla (m \cdot B)$$,

where ##m## is the magnetic moment and ##B## is the magnetic field.

For a paramagnetic or diamagnetic particle

$$m=\dfrac{\chi}{(1+\chi)\mu_0}B$$

where ##\chi## is the magnetic susceptibility (also shown in this wiki page [1]).

Therefore, if a particle is paramagnetic (##\chi>0##) the ##F_M## acting on it will be in the direction of the ##\nabla B^2## (and the opposite direction for a diamagnetic one)! So, all paramagnetic materials will move in the same direction?

What about the fact that the unpaired electrons of said paramagnetic particle can have a "spin-up" or "spin-down" (Stern–Gerlach experiment [2])? Shouldn't then the paramagnetic particles move randomly both "up" or "down" under the magnetization force??

Links:
[1]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Magnetization
[2]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stern–Gerlach_experiment
 
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sal1854 said:
For a paramagnetic or diamagnetic particle

$$m=\dfrac{\chi}{(1+\chi)\mu_0}B$$

where ##\chi## is the magnetic susceptibility (also shown in this wiki page [1]).
That's only true for particles without a permanent magnetic moment. What you get then is a field-induced magnetic moment.

If a particle has a permanent magnetic moment, then usually only this moment need be considered (unless the external field is very strong).
 
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