Do these two statements imply an underlying induction proof?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the rigor of mathematical proofs involving linear operators and induction. Specifically, the participants analyze the implications of the statements $$\forall u\in U\implies Tu\in U\subset V\implies T^2u\in U\implies \forall m\in\mathbb{N}, T^m\in U$$ and $$\forall u\in U\implies p(T)(u)=\sum\limits_{i=0}^na_i T^iu$$. They conclude that while shorthand notation can be useful, it is essential to adhere to rigorous standards of mathematical logic, particularly when expressing quantifiers and implications. The discussion emphasizes the necessity of expanding shorthand into full induction proofs for clarity and correctness.

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zenterix
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Homework Statement
Suppose ##T\in\mathcal{L}(V)##.
Suppose ##U## is a subspace of ##V## invariant under ##T##.
Prove that ##U## is invariant under ##p(T)## for every polynomial ##p\in\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{F})##.
Relevant Equations
My question is about writing proofs.
Here is one proof

$$\forall u\in U\implies Tu\in U\subset V\implies T^2u\in U\implies \forall m\in\mathbb{N}, T^m\in U\tag{1}$$

Is the statement above actually a proof that ##\forall m\in\mathbb{N}, T^m\in U## or is it just shorthand for "this can be proved by induction"?
In other words, for the proof to be rigorous, would (1) have to be expanded out into an induction proof?

Then

$$\forall u\in U\implies p(T)(u)=\sum\limits_{i=0}^na_i T^iu\tag{2}$$

The righthand sum is a linear combination of vectors in ##U##. Thus, ##p(T)u\in U## and so ##U## is invariant under ##p(T)##.

Here again I have the same doubt. To make the argument as rigorous as possible, does (2) and the sentence above need to be made into an induction argument?
 
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At this level and given the simplicity of the argument I would say you only need to mention induction.

Note, however, that ##\forall u \in U \Rightarrow## is not a standard construction. It should be either ##\forall u \in U:## or ##u \in U \Rightarrow##.
 
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zenterix said:
Here is one proof

$$\forall u\in U\implies Tu\in U\subset V\implies T^2u\in U\implies \forall m\in\mathbb{N}, T^m\in U\tag{1}$$
The above doesn't make sense to me.
As already mentioned, ##\forall u\in U## is not a statement. I.e., it's neither true nor false. Did you mean this: ##\forall u\in U, Tu \in U \subset V##?
 
@Mark44

In English, I want to say

If a vector ##u## is in ##U## then ##Tu## is in ##U##.

Another way to say this

Let ##u\in V##.

Suppose ##u\in U##.
(...)
Then ##Tu\in U##

Thus, I can infer the conditional

##u\in U\implies Tu\in U##.

And since I used a generic ##u\in V## then I can write

##\forall u [(u\in V\ \text{and}\ u\in U) \implies Tu\in U]##.

Now, if it is implicit that all the vectors I am considering are in ##V## then perhaps I could write just

##\forall u (u\in U\implies Tu\in U)##

When I used ##\forall u\in U## I meant ##\forall u, u\in U##.

I guess at this point I do this in my own proofs as a shorthand to not write everything out, but you are right, ##\forall## is a quantifier and expresses the quantity of things that satisfy some condition. The latter (the condition) must be present to have a statement. In my case it is ##u\in U\implies Tu\in U##.

Note that the chain of conditionals has all sorts of my shorthand notation.

For example, the second conditional should be

##\forall u (Tu\in U \implies T^2u\in U)##

The third conditional is actually

##\forall u (u \in U\implies [\forall m (m\in\mathbb{N}\implies T^m\in U)])##

So the question now is: do people really write out such logic statements without using any kind of shorthand notation?

I mean, as I am writing out the proof, I could write out all the statements in a way that obeys the rules of first order logic, but it would take longer.
 
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If ##T(U) \subset U##, the same would be the case for ##T^n(U)##, as ##T^2(U)=T( T(U))## would be operating on U itself*. All thats left is to verify it for the scaling . Maybe you can first define a basis for U to accomplish that.

*A copy of U, to be more accurate, but the point stands.
 
zenterix said:
I mean, as I am writing out the proof, I could write out all the statements in a way that obeys the rules of first order logic, but it would take longer.
If you have a good linear algebra textbook, you should see the appropriate mathematical notation.

Something like this is definitely not needed.
zenterix said:
##\forall u (u \in U\implies [\forall m (m\in\mathbb{N}\implies T^m\in U)])##
And, you make it so complicated, that your notation is starting to break down.
 
Here is an example of how my textbook (Axler Linear Algebra Done Right) writes two statements (I am paraphrasing)

1) For all ##m\times n## matrices ##A## and ##C## we have ##(A+C)^t=A^t+C^t##.

2) For all ##m\times n## matrices ##A## and ##C## and all ##\lambda\in\mathbb{F}##, we have ##(\lambda A)^t=\lambda A^t##.

And how these statements would look with only what I think we can call first-order logic (I am not totally sure if the notation below uses elements of logic beyond first-order logic, which is what I learned, but not in the context of math):

1) ##\forall\ m\ \forall\ n (A\in\mathbb{F}^{m,n}, C\in\mathbb{F}^{m,n}\implies (A+C)^t=A^t+C^t)##

2) ##\forall\ m\ \forall\ n\ \forall\ \lambda (\lambda\in\mathbb{F}, A\in\mathbb{F}^{m,n} \implies (\lambda A)^t=\lambda A^t)##

And here is how I have been writing this in my own notes

1) ##\forall A,C\in \mathbb{F}^{m,n}\implies (A+C)^t=A^t+C^t##

2) ##\forall \lambda\in\mathbb{F}, \forall A\in\mathbb{F}^{m,n} \implies (\lambda A)^t=\lambda A^t##
 
Here is an attempt to rewrite

##\forall u\in U\implies Tu\in U\subset V\implies T^2u\in U\implies\forall m\in\mathbb{N}, T^m\in U##.

First with mostly English.

Since ##U## is invariant under the linear operator ##T##, then every ##u\in U## is mapped to ##Tu\in U\subset V##.

Similarly, if ##Tu\in U## then ##T^2u\in U##.

(..induction argument)

Therefore, by induction, we conclude that for all natural numbers ##m## we have ##T^m\in U##.

Now with mostly symbols.

Let ##u\in U##.

Then ##Tu\in U##.

Then ##T^2u\in U##.

(..induction argument)

By induction, we can show that ##\forall\ m (m\in\mathbb{N}\implies T^mu\in U)##.

Finally, with slightly altered notation I have been using.

##\forall u (u\in U\implies Tu\in U \implies T^2u\in U \xrightarrow{\text{induction}} \forall m(m\in\mathbb{N} \implies T^m\in U))##

Now, I would usually write just

##\forall u (u\in U\implies Tu\in U \implies T^2u\in U \xrightarrow{\text{induction}} T^m\in U, \forall\ m\in\mathbb{N})##

I can see how my notation is confusing to anyone else reading the argument.

For myself, when sketching a proof, what matters most to me is building the argument and so this last notation is what I usually use. But I recognize that it doesn't make sense in a rigorous sense.

But it makes sense in terms of expressing my own reasoning. I can always rewrite it. Is this not a thing?
 

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