- #1

etotheipi

Now suppose there is a sphere sliding on a frictionless surface. If an impulse of magnitude 1Ns is applied to the edge of the sphere (in a small enough time interval so that it can be considered to be in one direction only), does the impulse divide between change in linear and angular momentum?

If not, then for instance if the sphere is of radius 1m, the angular impulse is 1Ns and the linear impulse is also 1Ns, which means the 'overall' momentum of the sphere increases by 2Ns.

The question arises from a sort of similar situation in part b) of question A1 under this link https://www.aapt.org/physicsteam/2019/upload/USAPhO-2018-Solutions.pdf, where the same impulse of friction has been applied to both the rotational momentum and linear momentum separately instead of splitting up.

Sorry if I'm missing anything obvious.