B Does the Higgs Boson really have 0 spin?

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The Higgs Boson is confirmed to have spin-0, consistent with predictions of the Standard Model. This characteristic has remained stable for nearly 60 years, demonstrating the model's robustness. Measurement errors can occur, but they do not change the fundamental nature of the Higgs Boson. The discussion highlights a lighthearted skepticism about the relevance of measuring the spin of a scalar particle. Ultimately, the spin of the Higgs Boson is definitively established as zero.
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Does the Higgs Boson really have 0 spin or is the spin between 0 and 1/2 x (1.054 571 817... x 10-34 J s)?
Does the Higgs Boson really have 0 spin or is the spin between 0 and 1/2 x (1.054 571 817... x 10-34 J s)?
 
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It really has spin-0. Just like it did on Saturday when you asked then.
 
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This shows, how persistent the Standard Model is. It survives for a whole week ;-) (in fact about 60 years yet).
 
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But leaving theory aside, there's always an error in measurement of spin, isn't there? :smile:
 
Demystifier said:
But leaving theory aside, there's always an error in measurement of spin, isn't there? :smile:
Who cares about measuring the spin of spin-less scalar? :smile:
 
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Thread 'Angular Momentum Vector and Its Magnitude'

For the quantum state ##|l,m\rangle= |2,0\rangle## the z-component of angular momentum is zero and ##|L^2|=6 \hbar^2##. According to uncertainty it is impossible to determine the values of ##L_x, L_y, L_z## simultaneously. However, we know that ##L_x## and ## L_y##, like ##L_z##, get the values ##(-2,-1,0,1,2) \hbar##. In other words, for the state ##|2,0\rangle## we have ##\vec{L}=(L_x, L_y,0)## with ##L_x## and ## L_y## one of the values ##(-2,-1,0,1,2) \hbar##. But none of these...
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