Does the series converge to pi^2/8?

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The discussion revolves around the convergence of a series to π²/8, with participants exploring the relationship between various sums. A key point is the connection between the sum of the squares of odd integers and known series, specifically the sum of all integers minus the sum of even integers. Participants suggest using contour integration and residues as a method to prove the hypothesis. The conversation also highlights that if one can use the known result of the sum of squares of integers, the problem becomes simpler. Overall, the participants confirm that the series indeed converges to the correct value, π²/8, through various mathematical approaches.
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Homework Statement


Homework Equations



[PLAIN]http://img577.imageshack.us/img577/6756/physforumsquestion.png

The Attempt at a Solution


I am pretty much stuck guys. Any help will be greatly appreciated!
 
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How are those two things related ?
 
Hi Blitzy89! :smile:

(have a pi: π and a sigma: ∑ :wink:)

It's half of ∑1/n2 - ∑1/(-n)2 … does that help?
 
tiny-tim said:
Hi Blitzy89! :smile:

(have a pi: π and a sigma: ∑ :wink:)

It's half of ∑1/n2 - ∑1/(-n)2 … does that help?


Something tells me that can't be right... doesn't the difference of sums you mentioned always equal 0?
 
oops!

oops! :redface:

maybe that should have been ∑1/n2 - ∑1/(2n)2 :rolleyes:

thanks char! :smile:

(have i got it right this time? :blushing:)
 
SammyS said:
How are those two things related ?

The idea is that if you can find (or perhaps just happen to know) a function with that particular Fourier series then you can integrate it to find the sum.

There's a way to do it using contour integration and residues. I can post more details if you want to go that way.
 


tiny-tim said:
oops! :redface:

maybe that should have been ∑1/n2 - ∑1/(2n)2 :rolleyes:

thanks char! :smile:

(have i got it right this time? :blushing:)


Doesn't that just give \Sigma \frac{3}{4 n^2}? Oh well there might be something in it as numerically it gives the right answer. :confused:
 
If you're allowed to use \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2} = \frac{\pi^{2}}{6} without proving it, then the hint in post #5 easily solves the problem.

If you must prove your hypothesis, then search the forums for a solution. There was a discussion on this a few weeks ago.
 
uart said:
Doesn't that just give \Sigma \frac{3}{4 n^2}? Oh well there might be something in it as numerically it gives the right answer. :confused:

If you look at OPs question again, you'll see that it's basically asking you to find the sum of the squares of the odd integers. All tiny tim did was to rewrite this the sum of all integers minus the sum of all even integers.
Now since we know what the sum of the square of all integers is, the question becomes pretty straightforward.
 
  • #10
Deadstar said:
If you look at OPs question again, you'll see that it's basically asking you to find the sum of the squares of the odd integers. All tiny tim did was to rewrite this the sum of all integers minus the sum of all even integers.
Now since we know what the sum of the square of all integers is, the question becomes pretty straightforward.

Thanks. I could see that it gave the right answer, 3/4 \times \pi^2/6, I just wasn't sure why :blushing:
 
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  • #11
BTW. If you want to do it the hard way I can still do it with a contour integral. :biggrin:
 
  • #12


tiny-tim said:
oops! :redface:

maybe that should have been ∑1/n2 - ∑1/(2n)2 :rolleyes:

thanks char! :smile:

(have i got it right this time? :blushing:)


Yeah, that's right. And it gives the right answer too, very easily in fact.
 

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