thereddevils said:
Is it true that the domain of a composite function say gf(x) is the intersection of domain of f(x) and the domain of gf(x) ? If so, why?
As mr. vodka said, this doesn't quite make sense. The domain of g°f(x)
is the domain of g°f(x)! I thought perhaps you meant "the intersection of the domain of f(x) and the domain of g(x)". That makes more sense but isn't true. For example, if f(x)= x+ 2 for 0< x< 5 and g(x)= x^2 for 2< x< 7, then g°f(x)= (x+ 2)^2 and is defined for all x such that f(x) is between 2 and 7- but that is exactly all x between 0 and 5.
That is, in order that g°f be defined, f(x) must be defined (x in the domain of f(x))
and f(x) itself must be in the domain of g. The domain of g°f is all x in the domain of f such that f(x) is in the domain of g.
Also, is the composite function gf(x) the intersection of function f(x) and function g(x)?
Now, this makes sense because we can think of g(x) and f(x) as "sets of ordered pairs (x, f(x))" so we
could take the intersection. But the intersection is NOT gf(x).
Again, consider the function f(x)= x+ 2 for x an
integer 0< x< 5 and g(x)= x^2 for x an
integer 2< x< 7.
Writing f and g as sets of ordered pairs, f= {(1, 3), (2, 4), (3, 5), (4, 6)} and g(x)= {(2, 4), (3, 9), (4, 16), (5, 25), (6, 36), (7, 49)}.
g(f(1))= g(3)= 9, g(f(2))= g(4)= 16, g(f(3))= g(5)= 25, g(f(4))= g(6)= 36 so that
g(f(x))= {(1, 9), (2, 4), (3, 25), (4, 36)}, not at all like an intersection of f and g.