Dot product: normal and tangent

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the calculation of the dot product between a normal vector and a vector on a tangent plane, specifically in the context of multivariable calculus. The original poster presents a problem involving the tangent plane at a point defined by coordinates and the use of partial derivatives.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the formulation of the vector \overline{PQ} and its components, questioning how to express it correctly for the dot product calculation. There are discussions about the representation of the normal vector and the implications of the partial derivatives involved.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaged in clarifying the expressions for the vectors involved and the dot product. Some have identified potential errors in each other's calculations, while others express confusion about the correct formulation of the vectors. There is a recognition of the need to accurately represent the components to achieve the desired outcome of the dot product being zero.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing examination of the definitions and representations of the vectors involved, particularly in relation to the tangent plane and the normal vector. Participants are also addressing the challenge of handling partial derivatives within the context of the problem.

sci-doo
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Homework Statement


Tangent plane goes through point P=(a,b,f(a,b)). Any point on the plane is then
Q=(x,y,z)=(x,y,f(a,b)+fx(a,b)(x-a)+fy(a,b)(y-b)) (fx and fy are partial derivatives)
and the vector [tex]\overline{PQ}[/tex] is on tangent plane.
Calculate dot product n.[tex]\overline{PQ}[/tex] and show that the normal vector is perpendicular to the tangent plane.

Homework Equations



n=fx(a,b)[tex]\hat{i}[/tex] + fy(a,b)[tex]\hat{j}[/tex] - [tex]\hat{k}[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


Ok, I should get the dot product = 0.

I don't know how to do that, because I don't know how to get the vector [tex]\overline{PQ}[/tex] into a right form. So far I've tried

[tex]\overline{PQ}[/tex] = [tex]\overline{Q}[/tex] - [tex]\overline{P}[/tex]
= xi + yj +f(x,y)k - ai - bj - f(a,b)k
= (x-a)i + (y-b)j + (f(x,y)-f(a,b))k

How am I supposed to get zero dot product from THAT and n?
n has partial derivatives, can I write them some other way? I'm stuck.
 
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So start with actually doing the dot product of PQ and n. What do you get?
 
Mark44 said:
So start with actually doing the dot product of PQ and n. What do you get?

I get

n dot PQ = fx(a,b)(x-a)+fy(a,b)(y-b)-f(x,y)+f(a,b)

I still have those partial derivatives, and I don't know what to do with them.
 
That's not what I get. You have an error in what you got for PQ.
 
Mark44 said:
That's not what I get. You have an error in what you got for PQ.

To get PQ I think I should start with Q-P. But it is scalar and I don't see how it turns into a vector.

Q-P= x,y,f(a,b) + fx(a,b)(x-a) + fy(a,b)(y-b) - a,b,f(a,b)
 
Q is a vector and P is a vector, and Q - P is a vector, and is equal to PQ. When you add or subtract vectors, you do so component-wise.
 
Mark44 said:
Q is a vector and P is a vector, and Q - P is a vector, and is equal to PQ. When you add or subtract vectors, you do so component-wise.

Q and P are given as scalars. P=(a,b,f(a,b)) is, I think, relatively easy to vectorize
ai + bj + f(a,b)k
Q is a bit ugly
xi + yj + f(a,b)k + fx(a,b)xi - fx(a,b)ai + fy(a,b)yj - fy(a,b)bj
and so Q - P is
xi + yj + fx(a,b)xi - fx(a,b)ai + fy(a,b)yj - fy(a,b)bj - ai - bj
and as k is gone, can be put as i and j
(x + fx(a,b)x - fx(a,b)a -a)i + (y + fy(a,b)y - fy(a,b)b -b)j

Taking dot product with n :

(x + fx(a,b)x - fx(a,b)a -a)*(fx(a,b)) + (y + fy(a,b)y - fy(a,b)b -b)*(fy(a,b)) = ..

The product doesn't cancel out, it is not zero.
 
I don't know how you're getting that [itex]\vec{PQ}[/itex], but the dot product with the normal vector is obviously zero.

Q is a bit ugly
xi + yj + f(a,b)k + fx(a,b)xi - fx(a,b)ai + fy(a,b)yj - fy(a,b)bj

?

How do you get terms such as [itex]f_x(a,b)x\hat{i}[/itex]?

[itex]f(a,b)+f_x(a,b)(x-a)+f_y(a,b)(y-b)[/itex] is the z coordinate of Q.
 
sci-doo said:
Q and P are given as scalars. P=(a,b,f(a,b)) is, I think, relatively easy to vectorize
ai + bj + f(a,b)k
Q is a bit ugly
xi + yj + f(a,b)k + fx(a,b)xi - fx(a,b)ai + fy(a,b)yj - fy(a,b)bj
The expression above is incorrect. Your x and y components are correct, but all the rest is the multiplier for the unit vector k.
sci-doo said:
and so Q - P is
xi + yj + fx(a,b)xi - fx(a,b)ai + fy(a,b)yj - fy(a,b)bj - ai - bj
and as k is gone, can be put as i and j
(x + fx(a,b)x - fx(a,b)a -a)i + (y + fy(a,b)y - fy(a,b)b -b)j

Taking dot product with n :

(x + fx(a,b)x - fx(a,b)a -a)*(fx(a,b)) + (y + fy(a,b)y - fy(a,b)b -b)*(fy(a,b)) = ..

The product doesn't cancel out, it is not zero.
 
  • #10
Mark44 said:
The expression above is incorrect. Your x and y components are correct, but all the rest is the multiplier for the unit vector k.

Thank you for correcting my somewhat unusual (and wrong!) approach..

I didn't see the z-part of Q as it is.

Dot product is (of course):
[tex]\bar{PQ}[/tex].n = fx(a,b)(x-a) + fy(a,b)(y-b) - fx(a,b)(x-a) - fy(a,b)(y-b) = 0

Once again, thank you for your help.
 

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