- #1
Hermes Chirino
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I'm reading this book on Classical Mechanics and there are two examples in the book where we are asked to find one expression for the velocity $v$, and one for the position $x$, both as functions of time for a particle moving in the x-direction in a "medium" where the drag force is proportional to $v$. We are also asked to find velocity and position in the y-direction, same medium, drag force propotional to $v$. They use differential equations methods to solve it. I don't have any trouble understanding their methods or how they got the equations; my question is on their premises.
For the x-direction, they use as premise:
$$ma_x=m\frac{dv}{dt}=-kmv_x$$
I understand the drag force $-kmv$ is equal in magnitude to the force $ma$, but opposite direction.
For the y-direction, they use as premise:
$$F_T=m\frac{dv}{dt}=-mg-kmv_y$$
I understand the total force is equal to the force of gravity $mg$, minus the drag force pointing in the opposite direction.
My question here is: Why they don't use a similar premise for the x-direction, something like:
$$F_T=ma_x-kmv_x$$
What is the diference ? What I am missing here ?
For the x-direction, they use as premise:
$$ma_x=m\frac{dv}{dt}=-kmv_x$$
I understand the drag force $-kmv$ is equal in magnitude to the force $ma$, but opposite direction.
For the y-direction, they use as premise:
$$F_T=m\frac{dv}{dt}=-mg-kmv_y$$
I understand the total force is equal to the force of gravity $mg$, minus the drag force pointing in the opposite direction.
My question here is: Why they don't use a similar premise for the x-direction, something like:
$$F_T=ma_x-kmv_x$$
What is the diference ? What I am missing here ?