# Dy/dx: must dx be the independent variable?

1. Feb 26, 2008

### Eus

Hi Ho!

If $$y=\sin x$$, $$\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{d(\sin x)}{dx}=\cos x$$.

If $$x=\sin y$$, $$y=\arcsin x$$, and therefore $$\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{d(\arcsin x)}{dx}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}$$.

But, if $$x=\sin y$$, can $$\frac{dy}{dx}$$ be done as $$\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{dy}{d(\sin y)}=\frac{1}{\frac{d(\sin y)}{dy}}}=\frac{1}{\cos y}=\sec y$$?

If it cannot, is it because the definition of $$\frac{dy}{dx}$$ that says that $$\frac{dy}{dx}=\lim_{\Delta x\rightarrow 0}{\frac{f(x+\Delta x)-f(x)}{\Delta x}}$$ requires that $$dx$$ must be the independent variable and $$dy$$ must be the dependent variable? Or, is there any other reason?

Thank you very much.

Best regards,
Eus

2. Feb 26, 2008

### HallsofIvy

Staff Emeritus
Actually, in most mathematics there is little or no distinction between "independent" and "dependent" variables. All we really need is that there be a "relation" between x and y. If y= sin(x), as long as we stay on an interval in which sine is "one-to-one", we can define the inverse function x= arcsin(y). Another way to find the derivative of x= sin(y), with respect to x, is to use "implicit differentiation": take the derivative of both sides with respect to x. 1= cos(y)dy/dx (by the chain rule) so dy/dx= 1/cos(y)= sec(y). If it bothers you that the right side is a function of y instead of x, you can change that by using trig identities, or even simpler thinking of y as an angle in a right triangle. If x= sin(y), then we can take x as the "opposite side" of a right triangle with hypotenuse 1. y is the angle opposite side x of course, so sin(y)= opposite side/near side= x/1= x. By the Pythagorean Theorem, then, the length of the "near side" is $\sqrt{1- x^2}$. Since secant is defined as "hypotenuse over near side", sec(y)= $1/\sqr{1- x^2}$. That is, if x= sin(y), dx/dy= $1/\sqrt{1- x^2}$ which is precisely the derivative formula for "arcsin(x)".