Efficient Integration for Physics Problem | A+Bcosx Formula

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of the expression \(\int_{0}^{2\pi}\frac{A+B\cos x}{\sqrt{A^{2}+B^{2}+2AB\cos x}}dx\), exploring its mathematical properties, potential connections to elliptic integrals, and specific cases where simplifications may occur. Participants examine the implications of the formula in various contexts, including geometric interpretations and approximations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants suggest that the integral may be classified as an elliptic integral.
  • There is a discussion about the relationship between the integrand and the law of cosines, with some arguing that the similarity is not coincidental.
  • One participant presents a solution involving elliptic functions, noting that certain conditions must be met for the integral to exist.
  • Another participant shares a series expansion for the integral, questioning the validity of neglecting higher-order terms.
  • There is a suggestion that if \(A = B\), the integral simplifies significantly, leading to a more straightforward integration.
  • Geometric interpretations are proposed, linking the integral to a circle and angles defined within that context.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the nature of the integral, with some asserting connections to elliptic integrals while others focus on geometric interpretations. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the general approach to the integral and the implications of specific cases.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the dependence on specific values of \(A\) and \(B\) for determining the behavior of the integral, as well as the unresolved nature of the conditions under which the integral can be computed or approximated.

Phizyk
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Hi,
How can I integrate this
\int_{0}^{2\pi}\frac{A+Bcosx}{\sqrt{A^{2}+B^{2}+2ABcosx}}dx
Thanks for help.
 
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isn't that an elliptic integral?
 
is it just a coincidence that the bottom is 1 sign away from being the law of cosines?

here's the soln mathematica gives me.

for some values there is an integral where E and K are the ellipticE and ellipticK fns and the funky R and E or Z or w/e it is are Real part and Imaginary Part respectively.

<br /> <br /> \text{If}\left[\Re\left((A-B)^2\right)&gt;0\land<br /> \Re\left((A+B)^2\right)&gt;0\land<br /> \left(\Re\left(\frac{A}{B}+\frac{B}{A}\right)\geq 2\lor<br /> \Re\left(\frac{A}{B}+\frac{B}{A}\right)\leq -2\lor<br /> \Im\left(\frac{A}{4 B}+\frac{B}{4 A}\right)\neq<br /> 0\right)<br />
<br /> \frac{\sqrt{(A+B)^2} E\left(-\frac{4 A<br /> B}{(A-B)^2}\right) (A-B)^2+(A+B) \left(\sqrt{(A-B)^2} (A+B)<br /> E\left(\frac{4 A B}{(A+B)^2}\right)+(A-B)<br /> \left(\sqrt{(A+B)^2} K\left(-\frac{4 A<br /> B}{(A-B)^2}\right)+\sqrt{(A-B)^2} K\left(\frac{4 A<br /> B}{(A+B)^2}\right)\right)\right)}{A \sqrt{(A-B)^2}<br /> \sqrt{(A+B)^2}}<br />

apparently for some values there is no integral

<br /> \text{Integrate}\left[\frac{A}{\sqrt{A^2+2 B<br /> \cos (x) A+B^2}}+\frac{B \cos (x)}{\sqrt{A^2+2 B \cos (x)<br /> A+B^2}},\{x,0,2 \pi \},\text{Assumptions}\to<br /> \left(\Im\left(\frac{A}{4 B}+\frac{B}{4 A}\right)=<br /> <br />
0\land<br /> -2&lt;\Re\left(\frac{A}{B}+\frac{B}{A}\right)&lt;2\right)\lor<br /> \Re\left((A-B)^2\right)\leq 0\lor \Re\left((A+B)^2\right)\leq<br /> 0\right]\right]<br /> <br />
 
Last edited:
ice109 said:
is it just a coincidence that the bottom is 1 sign away from being the law of cosines?

Probably not. Elliptic integrals often arise in applied problems where one has to integrate an inner product in the denominator. Inner products are equal to cosines.

And again, from another viewpoint, about the sign. The whole function under the integrand is periodic w. period 2pi. Add pi to x and the cosine changes sign. Of course one then integrates from pi to 3pi instead of from 0 to 2pi or whatever.

Deacon John
 
I used to function calculator and I received:
\int{\frac{A+Bcosx}{\sqrt{A^{2}+B^{2}+2ABcosx}}}=\frac{(B^{4}-4AB^{3}+4A^{2}B^{2})x^{5}}{5(24B^{4}+96AB^{3}+144A^{2}B^{2}+96A^{3}B+24A^{4})}-\frac{B^{2}x^{3}}{3(2B^{2}+4AB+2A^{2})}+x+O(x^{7})+C
I think what I can neglect O(x^{7})... Is it correct?
 
Phizyk.
Thanks for your fascinating formula. I have no way to verify it's correctness quickly. You are correct that you can neglect O(x^7), when x is small, of course. How small? Well, at least x < 1/2, but it really depends on the value of A and B and the application. Unfortunately the constant involved in the O is not given. If it is large, x has to be smaller.
The numberator in the first term is O(x^8). The numerator in the second term is O(x^3). For A and B less than one and x small, one would expect the second erm to dominate. For A and B greater than two, the first term is likely to dominate if x is not too small, say for x greater than .1. However, as x gets smaller, say x< .001, the second term can be expected to dominate for single digit values of A and B. This line of reasoning says that there is a real danger that the constant in O(x^7) is a real concern. More specifically, the constant in O(x^7) can expected to be within an order of magnitude of the constant in the first two terms. That is because this is probably a rational function approximation (see Abrahamowitz and Stegen) or something like that and that is how they work.

A remark for beginners: the constant C at the end is just the constant of integration.

Deacon John
 
So, we can not integrate this... But if A=B, we have
\int{\frac{cos^{2}\frac{x}{2}}{|cos\frac{x}{2}|}}dx
and it can be simple integrate...
 
ice109 said:
is it just a coincidence that the bottom is 1 sign away from being the law of cosines?

No coincidence … it's a very simple geometric problem …

Draw a circle of radius A, centre at the origin O = (0,0).

Define P = (-B,0).

Then, for any point Q on the circle, if θ is the angle between OQ and the x-axis, and φ is the angle between PQ and the x-axis,

the integral is ∫cosφ dθ. :smile:

(and if A = B, then φ = θ/2)
 
tiny-tim said:
No coincidence … it's a very simple geometric problem …

Draw a circle of radius A, centre at the origin O = (0,0).

Define P = (-B,0).

Then, for any point Q on the circle, if θ is the angle between OQ and the x-axis, and φ is the angle between PQ and the x-axis,

the integral is ∫cosφ dθ. :smile:

(and if A = B, then φ = θ/2)


Very nice. Thanks.
 
  • #10
This is a brilliant solution. Thanks for all...
 

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