MHB Efficient Techniques for Solving Complex Integrals | Help with Definite Integral

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The discussion focuses on solving the integral $$\int_{0}^\infty \frac{x^2 \, dx}{x^4+(a^2+\frac{1}{b^2})x^2+\frac{2a^2}{b^2}}$$ using techniques like the residue theorem. The complexity arises from the roots of the denominator, which are derived from the quadratic equation in $z^2$. A suggested approach involves using a contour that extends from negative to positive infinity, incorporating a semicircle, and evaluating the integral along this path. The discussion emphasizes the importance of determining the nature of the roots, specifically their imaginary parts, to ensure the integral converges properly. Ultimately, the analysis leads to identifying the poles and their contributions to the integral's evaluation.
jazhemar
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I'm having a tough time with this integral:

$$\int_{0}^\infty \frac{x^2 \, dx}{x^4+(a^2+\frac{1}{b^2})x^2+\frac{2a^2}{b^2}}$$
where $$a, b \in \Bbb R^+$$ I tried using the residue theorem, but the roots of the denominator I found are quite complicated, and I got stuck.

What contour should I use? Is there an alternative method? I would appreciate any advice.
 
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You'll probably need to assume that the imaginary parts of the roots are positive. I would go with the contour of negative infinity to positive infinity, and then do a semicircle back. That is, do this:
\begin{align*}
f(z)&=\dfrac{z^2}{z^4+(a^2+1/b^2)z^2+2a^2/b^2} \\
I&=\int_0^{\infty}f(z) \, dz \\
2I&=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(z) \, dz, \qquad \text{because} \; f(z) \; \text{is even}.
\end{align*}
Then compute
$$\int_{-R}^R f(z) \, dz$$
along the real axis, and compute
$$iR\int_{0}^{\pi}f\Big(Re^{i\theta}\Big) \, e^{i\theta} \, d\theta,$$
where $z=R e^{i\theta}$. My hunch is that the semicircle part will be zero, and you can probably show that by the $ML$ inequality.

You are going to need to horse through the roots of the denominator, because you'll have
$$\lim_{R\to\infty}\left[\int_{-R}^Rf(z) \, dz+\int_{0}^{\pi}iR \,f\Big(Re^{i\theta}\Big) \, e^{i\theta} \, d\theta\right]=\sum_j\text{Res}[f(z_j),z_j],$$
and to find the residues, you'll need the roots of the denominator. They're really not that bad:
$$z^2=\frac{-a^2b^2-1\pm\sqrt{a^4b^4-6a^2b^2+1}}{2b^2}.$$

I think they're all simple roots, so you can compute the residues by
$$\text{Res}[f(z_j),z_j]=\lim_{z\to z_j}(z-z_j)f(z).$$

Can you continue?
 
Thank you! But, how do I know for which of those four roots are the imaginary parts positive?
 
jazhemar said:
Thank you! But, how do I know for which of those four roots are the imaginary parts positive?

So let's examine the equation
$$z^2=\frac{-a^2b^2-1\pm\sqrt{a^4b^4-6a^2b^2+1}}{2b^2},$$
which describes all four poles of $f(z)$. First of all, note that the discriminant
\begin{align*}
a^4b^4-6a^2b^2+1&=a^4b^4-2a^2b^2+1-4a^2b^2 \\
&=(a^2b^2-1)^2-4a^2b^2 \\
&=(a^2b^2-1-2ab)(a^2b^2-1+2ab) \\
&=(a^2b^2-2ab+1-2)(a^2b^2+2ab+1-2) \\
&=((ab-1)^2-2)((ab+1)^2-2).
\end{align*}
This might help you get a handle on where the roots lie, given the locations of $a$ and $b$.

Now, I don't know what the RHS is fully, but since the quadratic equation in $z^2$ has all real coefficients, then both of these solutions, if they are complex, come in complex-conjugate pairs. As a matter of fact, if any of these roots are real and positive, then the original integral blows up along its contour. I don't think this happens, though, and here's why:

\begin{align*}
(a^2b^2+1)^2&=a^4b^4+2a^2b^2+1 \\
&>a^4b^4-6a^2b^2+1,
\end{align*}
and hence
$$a^2b^2+1>\sqrt{a^4b^4-6a^2b^2+1}.$$
So, if the discriminant is positive, the square root of its magnitude is less than the negative thing being added to it. So when you take the positive sign, you get a negative, and when you take the negative sign, you get something even more negative. So there cannot be any positive real values of $z^2$.

I suppose there could be negative real roots, in which case the contours I suggested in my previous post would run right over them; you can either change your contour to be only in the first quadrant (You can't go on the imaginary axis, because a negative value of $z^2$ would square root to be on the imaginary axis! You'd need to do, say, from $0\le\theta\le\pi/4$), or you need to impose a condition on $a$ and $b$ such that this discriminant is negative, and you get only complex conjugate values for $z^2$.

So, let's suppose that is the case (and with the factors above, hopefully it will be a bit easier to find out when that happens): the roots of the quadratic in $z^2$ are complex conjugate pairs. That means $z^2=r e^{\pm i\theta}$ for some positive real $r$, and $0<\theta<\pi$. Finally, we have the four poles located at
$$z=\sqrt{r} \, e^{i\theta/2}, \; \sqrt{r} \, e^{-i\theta/2}, \; -\sqrt{r} \, e^{i\theta/2}, \; -\sqrt{r} \, e^{-i\theta/2}.$$
The first and last of these, if you think it through, will have positive imaginary part.

So, what is $\theta$? Well, we know that
$$\tan(\theta)=\frac{\text{Im}(z^2)}{\text{Re}(z^2)}.$$
Work out what that is, and you should be on your way. Don't forget to make sure $0<\theta<\pi$ by adding or subtracting $\pi$.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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