Efficiently Solve Tricky Integral: cos(x)/(1+e^x) with Odd Function Property

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The integral of cos(x)/(1+e^x) over the interval from -π/2 to π/2 can be simplified using the property of odd functions. The expression (1/(1+e^x) - 1/2) is identified as an odd function, which leads to the conclusion that its integral over a symmetric interval around zero is zero. Participants discussed various integration techniques, including integration by parts and expressing cos(x) in terms of complex exponentials, but found these methods unhelpful. Ultimately, recognizing the odd function property allows for a straightforward evaluation of the integral, confirming that it equals zero. The discussion emphasizes the importance of identifying function properties in solving integrals efficiently.
Elysian
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Homework Statement


Find the integral of

\int\frac{cos(x)}{1+e^{x}}

Homework Equations



Given that

\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2} is an odd function

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried integration by parts, with both u = cos(x) and u = 1+e^x, and both only complicated it even more. I've not learned infinite series and sequences so I'm not sure that's the way.

I did try writing cos(x) as \frac{e^{ix}+e^{-ix}}{2}, but I'm not sure what to do after that. I can see that there'd be some hyperbolic stuff in here but again, I'm not sure where exactly to start.
 
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Elysian said:

Homework Statement


Find the integral of

\int\frac{cos(x)}{1+e^{x}}

Homework Equations



Given that

\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2} is an odd function
I don't see how that is relevant unless you are doing a definite integral on an interval like [-a,a].

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried integration by parts, with both u = cos(x) and u = 1+e^x, and both only complicated it even more. I've not learned infinite series and sequences so I'm not sure that's the way.

I did try writing cos(x) as \frac{e^{ix}+e^{-ix}}{2}, but I'm not sure what to do after that. I can see that there'd be some hyperbolic stuff in here but again, I'm not sure where exactly to start.

I don't think there is an elementary antiderivative.
 
LCKurtz said:
I don't see how that is relevant unless you are doing a definite integral on an interval like [-a,a].


I don't think there is an elementary antiderivative.

Oh jeez I forgot to put the interval. its from -pi/2 to pi/2. I'm really sorry about that
 
Elysian said:
Oh jeez I forgot to put the interval. its from -pi/2 to pi/2. I'm really sorry about that

If ##f(x)## is odd what do you know about ##\int_{-a}^a f(x)\, dx##?
 
So, what is \displaystyle <br /> \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\left(\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\cos(x)\,dx\ ?
 
LCKurtz said:
If ##f(x)## is odd what do you know about ##\int_{-a}^a f(x)\, dx##?

It would equal 0. So as SammyS put it, it would be \displaystyle <br /> \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\left(\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\cos(x)\,dx\ ?, where the first term would go to zero and then I'm left to evaluate the last bit which would be -\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\frac{cos(x)}{2}?

SammyS said:
So, what is \displaystyle <br /> \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\left(\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\cos(x)\,dx

Is this just the integral of the right side then? So it's just -1?
 
Elysian said:
It would equal 0. So as SammyS put it, it would be \displaystyle <br /> \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\left(\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\cos(x)\,dx\ ?, where the first term would go to zero and then I'm left to evaluate the last bit which would be -\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\frac{cos(x)}{2}?

No. You don't evaluate an integral in pieces like that. You have ##\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}## multiplied by ##\cos x##. Is ##\cos x ## even, odd, or neither? What about its product with ##\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}##?
 
Elysian said:
It would equal 0. So as SammyS put it, it would be \displaystyle <br /> \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\left(\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\cos(x)\,dx\ ?, where the first term would go to zero and then I'm left to evaluate the last bit which would be -\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\frac{cos(x)}{2}?
Remember, the hint says that \displaystyle \frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\ is odd (that entire expression).

How do you get \displaystyle \frac{1}{1+e^{x}}-\frac{1}{2}\ from \displaystyle \frac{1}{1+e^{x}}\ ?
 

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