Electrical Circuit Question - Integrating Amplifier

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The discussion revolves around solving a problem involving an integrating amplifier circuit. The user initially struggles with applying Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL) and understanding the behavior of currents at a specific node in the circuit. They clarify that in an ideal operational amplifier, the voltages at the inputs are equal, and no current flows into the inputs. The conversation highlights that the output voltage (Vout) adjusts to maintain the node at zero volts, effectively balancing the voltage across the capacitor (Vc). Ultimately, the user successfully resolves the problem with assistance from others in the forum.
GreenPrint
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Homework Statement



http://img801.imageshack.us/img801/4227/capturebsw.png

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



Alright I'm not really sure how to solve this problem. I have redrawn the circuit below without the operational amplifier. In ideal operation amplifiers there's no current going into the positive and negative inputs and the voltages are also the same.

http://img254.imageshack.us/img254/963/capturenpcq.png

My initial thoughts to solving this problem was to use KCL. I'm however unsure how to do this in this situation. I_{1} is both entering and leaving the upper node at 0 V and I_{f} is entering the node. So does this mean that I_{f} is zero?

Thanks for any help you can provide.
 
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Since the op-amp wants to keep the node at the top of I1 (Let's call it Node A) at zero volts, it must do so by dropping Vout to compensate for the voltage that builds up on the capacitor.

If node A always at zero potential, what's the current through R1 at all times?
So where does I1 go? What then is an expression for Vc (the potential across the capacitor) with respect to time?
 
So if I understand correctly you mean that Vout becomes zero?
 
GreenPrint said:
So if I understand correctly you mean that Vout becomes zero?

No, Vout becomes whatever is necessary to nullify the effect of Vc, keeping Node A at zero.

Vout + Vc = 0V.
 
Thank you for your help. I was able to solve the problem.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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